Question 11 :
If the epididymis is removed from a person body then what will happen?
Question 13 :
The seminiferous tubules of the testis are lined by the germinal epithelium consisting of
Question 14 :
Which of the following is a set of male accessory ducts?
Question 15 :
Scrotal sacs of man and rabbit are connected with the abdominal cavity by
Question 20 :
Choose the correct answer from the four options given below.<br/>A single highly coiled tube where sperms are stored, gets concentrated and mature is known as
Question 24 :
There are some special types of cells found in the seminiferous tubules, known as sertoli cells. These are
Question 25 :
Secretions from which one of the following is rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes
Question 26 :
Which of the following is an accessory reproductive gland in male mammals?
Question 30 :
Which of the following shows the correct route, that the sperm takes after leaving the testis?
Question 32 :
The prostatic fluid forms about .......... of total volume of semen.
Question 45 :
The fluid which is rich in calcium citrate, fibrinolysin, acid phosphatase and contributes about 30% of the total volume of semen is released by
Question 51 :
If the .......... in the male is blocked, sperms can be prevented to .......... the egg.<br/>
Question 53 :
In man, the sperms released from the testis take the following route to reach the urethra
Question 57 :
Which one of the following is not a part of male penis?
Question 58 : The Punnett square below shows a cross between a pure tall and heterozygous tall plant. What is the total number of tall offspring represented in the Punnett square?<br/>T- tall plant<br/>t- short plant<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td>T</td><td>T</td></tr><tr><td>T</td><td>TT</td><td>TT</td></tr><tr><td>t</td><td>Tt</td><td>Tt</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 59 :
A cross done between a homozygous recessive and a heterozygous plant is called as<br/>
Question 61 :
If a cross is made between two individuals, each having genotype Bb, two offsprings are obtained. Out of these first has dominant trait. What is the probability that the second offspring will exhibit recessive trait?
Question 62 :
The cross used to ascertain whether the plant is homozygous or heterozygous is
Question 63 :
Among seven pairs of traits studied by Mendel, the number of traits related to flower, pod and seed were
Question 64 :
An offspring of two homozygous parents differing from one another by alleles at only one gene locus is
Question 65 :
For the alleles $A,B,C,D$ where, $A=B>C=D$ the number of phenotypes obtained will be
Question 66 :
In the monohybrid cross Tt x tt, the phenotypic ratio of the progeny would be 
Question 67 :
Mendel, for his studies chose pea plants and considered many contrasting characteristics present in the pea plants. One of characteristics not considered by him was
Question 69 :
F$_1$ generation of a cross between a red flowered plant and a white flowered plant predominantly consisted of red flowered plants indicating red flower trait is
Question 72 :
Which one of the following cannot be explained on thebasis of Mendel's law of Dominance?
Question 74 :
Find the correct statements<br>(i) $F_1$ progeny is first hybrid generation and progeny resembles either of parent.<br>(ii) $F_2$progeny is a resultant hybrid generation of cross pollination among $F_1$ progeny and the progeny shows both dwarf and tall plants<br>(iii) $F_2$ progeny is second hybrid generation produced by selfing $F_1$ hybrids and progeny contains both dwarf and tall plants<br>(iv) Proportion of probability of plants that are dwarf is 1/4 of $F_2$plants while 3/4 of $F_2$plants are tall
Question 75 :
In pea, yellow seed colour is dominant over green colour. Heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with green seeded plant. The ratio of yellow & green seeded offspring will be<br/>
Question 76 :
Heterozygote tall plant (Tt) is crossed with homozygous dwarf (tt) plant. Then what will be percentage of dwarf plants in the next generation?
Question 78 :
The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross in called
Question 79 :
If a plant is heterozygous tall and produced tall as well as dwarf in $F_2$ generation, it represents the law of
Question 80 :
Name the scientist who converted Mendel's conclusions into principles of heredity
Question 81 :
Which law of Mendel is explained in the given statement?<br/>"In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair express in presence of other members"
Question 82 :
Grain colour of wheat is determined by three pairs of polygenes. What proportion of F$_2$ progeny will resemble either parents following a cross of AABBCC (dark colour) with aabbcc (light colour)?
Question 83 :
If in a garden pea plant, a cross is made between red flowered and white flowered plants. What will be the phenotypic ratio in F$_{2}$ generation?
Question 84 :
A tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil and remained dwarf. When it is crossed with dwarf plant then
Question 86 :
Which of the following parts of the flowering plants is haploid?<br/>1) Ovary 2) Pollen 3) Egg 4) Anther 5) Zygote
Question 88 :
In Gramineae the perianth is represented by smaIl scaly lodicules which are generally
Question 89 :
The major role of flower in the life of plant is to?
Question 92 :
Centripetally arranged sessile flowers on a flattened convex axis are found in
Question 96 :
Read the following four statements (A-D).<br/>(A) Flowers are the morphological and embryological marvel and the site of sexual reproduction. <br/>(B) Anther are attached to the proximal end of the filament of stamen. <br/>(C) Androecium and gynoecium represent the non-essential part of the flower. <br/>(D) The number and length of stamens are variable in flower of different species. <br/>How many statements are correct? 
Question 104 :
When the filaments of stamens are attached to the petals, the condition is
Question 105 :
In a bisexual flower inspite of the young stamens being removed artificially, the flower produces fruit. Choose a suitable explanation for the above situation.<br>
Question 107 :
If sepals and petals of a flower are arranged in a whorl, the flower is
Question 108 :
Which of the following plants has the floral characters like zygomorphic flower, vexillary aestivation, diadelphous androecium and marginal placentation?<br/>
Question 109 :
Which of the following statements are true for flowers ?<br/>(i) Flowers are always bisexual<br/>(ii) They are the sexual reproductive organs<br/>(iii) They are produced in all groups of plants<br/>(iv) After fertilization they give rise to fruits<br/><br/>
Question 112 :
The peduncle is compressed to a flattened or convex disc, the receptacle and the flowers (florets)are sessile this represents ....... inflorescence
Question 115 :
The plant which opens during nights and closes in daytime is <br/>
Question 118 :
If the filaments are fused in a single group the condition is
Question 124 :
In many cultivated ornamental flowers, number of petal whorls is higher than the one in wild type. Extra petals are generally modified<br/>
Question 125 :
On the basis of flowers and inflorescence the most advanced family in angiosperms is
Question 129 :
Which of the following feature is absent in the family asteraceae?
Question 131 :
If in an inflorescence two lateral branches developon either side of the terminal flower which againbranch is known as
Question 152 :
Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the flowers of family solanaceae?
Question 153 :
Consider the following four statements A, B, C and D select the right option for two correct statements.<br>Statements :<br>(A) In vexillary aestivation, the large posterior petal is called-standard, two lateral ones are wings and twosmall anterior petals are termed keel.<br>(B) The floral formula for Liliaceae is$\oplus P_{3+3} A_{3+3} G_{\underset{-}{3}} $.<br>(C) In pea flower the stamens are monadelphous.<br>(D) The floral formula for Solanaceae is $\oplus K_{(5)}C_{(3)}G_{(2)}$.<br>The correct statements are
Question 155 :
Which one of the following statement is not applicable to Solanaceae?
Question 161 :
Read the statements carefully :<br/>a) Flowers are morphological and embryological marvel and the site of sexual reproduction<br/>b) The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower<br/>c) The number and length of stamens are variable in flowers of different species<br/>d) stamen attached to the petal is epipetalous<br/>How many above statements are correct<br/><br/>
Question 170 :
Flowers having epigynous gamopetalous condition and basal placentation are found in
Question 171 :
Which of the monocarpic plant flowers once in every 12 years due to which Nilgiris are called as blue mountains?
Question 172 :
In which family there are 5 sepals and odd one isanterior?
Question 174 : Match the parts in Column A with the flowers or parts of flower in Column B.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>Column A</td><td>Column B</td></tr><tr><td>(a)  Polyadelphous</td><td>(i)   Polypetalous</td></tr><tr><td>(b)  Pollen grains</td><td>(ii)   Calyx, corolla</td></tr><tr><td>(c)  Free petals</td><td>(iii)   Nectar</td></tr><tr><td>(d)  Non-essential</td><td>(iv) <i>  Bombax</i></td></tr><tr><td>(e)  Sweet fragrant fluid</td><td>(v)   Pollen sac</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 179 :
Assertion: Spathe, a bract of spadix attracts pollinators
Reason: Spathe is often brightly coloured
Question 181 :
Read the following four statements (A-D).<br/>(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve the uphill transport of protons across the membrane.<br/>(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth.<br/>(C) Stamens in flowers of <i>Gloriosa </i>and <i>Petunia </i>are polyandrous.<br/>(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in a free-living state also in soil.<br/><br/>How many of the above statements are right?
Question 183 :
Depending upon the mode of branching of peduncle, the inflorescences are of ...... main types.
Question 185 :
A bicarpellary, unilocular ovary with a single ovule at the base is found in
Question 188 :
During binary fission in Amoeba which of the following organelles is duplicated?
Question 190 :
The process of propagation of new individual from the existing one is called as
Question 192 :
The process of formation of one or more outgrowths from an individual is known as?
Question 201 :
Which of these organisms reproduce in the same way as yeast?
Question 202 :
The process of development of organism like itself is called as<br/>
Question 203 :
The process of production of closely resembled young one is called as
Question 206 :
The production of offsprings by sexual or asexual process is called as
Question 207 :
The motile reproductive structures of algae and fungi, which directly give rise to new individuals are called<br>
Question 217 :
What is the number of times, that yeast will undergo cell division in 2 days?
Question 219 :
The process in which embryo develops from unfertilized oosphere is called as
Question 223 :
Match the lists and choose the correct option.<br/>        <b>List I</b>                          <b>List II</b><br/>(a) Gemmules               1. <i>Agave</i><br/>(b) Leaf-buds                 2. <i>Penicillium</i><br/>(c) Bulbil                        3. Water hyacinth<br/>(d) Offset                       4. Sponges<br/>(e) Conidia                     5. <i>Bryophyllum</i><span class="_wysihtml5-temp">
Question 226 :
Reproduction, unlike other life processes, is not essential to maintain the life of an individual organism.<br>
Question 230 :
The process in which new organisms are formed by existing organism is called as ___________
Question 232 :
A natural method of birth control assumes that sperms live for three days after intercourse, ovulation occurs between days $13-15$ of the menstrual cycle and released ova live for $36$ hours.<br>On which day of the cycle should intercourse not result in pregnancy?
Question 238 :
Which one of the following glands is absent in reproductive system of rabbit?
Question 239 :
An organism which can reproduce by budding aswell as regeneration is
Question 240 :
Among the following which one is NOT a method of vegetative propagation.
Question 243 :
State whether the following statements are true or false.<br>Euglena is always heterotrophic.
Question 244 :
The uniparental reproduction is called _______ reproduction while biparental reproduction is termed _________ reproduction. Higher organisms mostly show ________ reproduction.
Question 245 :
In <i>vorticella</i>, the total number of micronuclei formed at the end of pre-zygotic nuclear division in female gamete is 
Question 246 :
Reproduction is not essential for an individual but to maintain the species.<br>
Question 248 :
Select the total number from the following organism that multiply by budding.<br/>Hydra, Sponge, Yeast, Earthworm, Planaria, Honey bee
Question 249 :
Number of spermatozoa, a single primary spermatocyte ultimately produced in spermatogenesis is
Question 254 :
Which of the following process of maintains the existence of the species on the earth?
Question 255 :
Yeast under anaerobic conditions are cultured in a flask of nutrient broth. The yeast that are most fit are those that<br/>
Question 257 :
If an unfertilized egg of frog is pricked by a minute needle
Question 258 :
Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are<br/>
Question 259 :
Which of the following options correctly identities artificial and natural methods of vegetative propagation?
Question 262 :
Which of the following mostly shows the sexual dimorphism?<span id="_wysihtml5-undo" class="_wysihtml5-temp">
Question 263 :
Development of animal embryo from egg without fertilization is called as<br/>
Question 265 :
What observation can be made by viewing the slides under the microscope on binary fission in Amoeba and budding in yeast?
Question 268 :
Amoeba is called immortal because it does not undergo natural death.
Question 269 : Match the items in column I with column II and choose the correct option.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td><b>Column I</b></td><td></td><td><b>Column II</b></td></tr><tr><td>A.</td><td>Binary fission</td><td>1.</td><td>Algae</td></tr><tr><td>B.</td><td>Zoospore</td><td>2.</td><td>Amoeba</td></tr><tr><td>C.</td><td>Conidium</td><td>3.</td><td>Hydra</td></tr><tr><td>D.</td><td>Budding</td><td>4.</td><td>Penicillium</td></tr><tr><td>E.</td><td>Gemmules</td><td>5.</td><td>Sponge</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 270 :
Megha and Farheen were performing an experiment on plant reproduction. They both placed a potatoin the soil and observed the changes after few days. Which of the following will they observe?
Question 272 :
The mammal whose testis come into scrotal sacs only during breeding time is
Question 277 : Match list -I with list II and select the correct answer from the code given below this lists.<br><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td><b>List I</b></td><td></td><td><b>List II</b></td></tr><tr><td>A</td><td>Neoteny</td><td>I</td><td>Axolotl larva</td></tr><tr><td>B</td><td>Parthenogenesis</td><td>II</td><td>Dragon fly</td></tr><tr><td>C</td><td>Retrogressive metamorphosis</td><td>III</td><td>Honey bee</td></tr><tr><td>D</td><td>Incomplete metamorphosis</td><td>IV</td><td>Ascidian larva</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 280 :
What will be the population size with in $48$ hours, if paramecium undergoes $4$ binary fissions in a day?
Question 281 :
An aphid has two modes of reproduction; sexual, when food is sufficient and .............., when there is scarcity of food and uncrowded.
Question 282 :
Select the correct statements for the process of budding in yeast:<br/>I. A bud arises from a particular region on a parent body.<br/>II. A parent cell divides into two daughter cells, here the parental identity is lost.<br/>III. Before detaching from the parent body a bud may form another bud.<br/>IV. A bud when detaches from the parent body grows into a new individual.
Question 284 :
When you study a slide showing different stages of budding in yeast, youobserve the following stages :<br>I. The bud may get separated from the parent body and develop intoa new individual.<br>II. The body of the bud develops and gives rise to another baby bud.<br>III. A bud comes out in any direction from the body of the parent cell.<br>IV. Thus they may form a colony.<br>The proper sequence of the above stages is
Question 285 :
Read the assertion (A) and reason (R) carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given below:<b><br>A</b>. There are some plants which have in their life-cycles neither the process of fertilization nor they have meiosis.<br><b>R</b>. In these plants, the vegetative or somatic plant body helps in the propagation of the plant.
Question 288 :
Assertion: The world population was around 2 billion in 1900 which has rocketed to about 6 billion by 2000
Reason: Increase in longevity due to decline in death rate, maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate has been some major causes of population explosion
Question 292 :
Choose the correct answer among the alternatives given :<br>Whatis the work of copper-T?
Question 297 :
Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at present?
Question 300 :
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
Question 301 :
Creating awareness about sex related aspects is an effective method to improve reproductive health of the people.<br/>
Question 302 :
Which of the following birth control methods are associated with the highest pregnancy rates with typical use?
Question 306 :
Which of the following is the most accepted method of contraception in India?
Question 308 :
The population of India, as recorded at each decennial census from 1901 has grown steadily except for a decrease during ___________.
Question 310 :
Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a natural method where couples abstain from coitus
Reason: Coitus from days 5-10 should be avoided because this is the time of ovulation
Question 311 :
Which of the following physiological process is stopped by surgical intervention techniques of contraception?
Question 312 :
The difference between birth rate and death rate is termed as ____________.
Question 313 : <p>Which of the following factors were responsible for the period of stagnant growth of India's population from 1901-1921?</p><p>1. Poor health and medical services.</p><p>2. Illiteracy of people at large.</p><p>2. Inefficient distribution system of food and other basic necessities.</p>
Question 319 :
In the ____________ stage of demographic transition, the birth as well as the death rates decline.
Question 322 :
Infant mortality rate in India has declined to ______ per thousand as per Census 2011.
Question 323 :
The number of people living per square feet is known as the density of population.
Question 324 :
The first stage of demographic transition is characterised by _______ birth rates and ________ death rates.
Question 325 :
Progesterone which is the most important component of oral contraceptive pills prevents pregnancy by
Question 328 :
______ is measured in terms of the number of persons per square kilometer.
Question 329 :
Which of the following is a problem related to reproductive health in India?
Question 331 :
The population in India has almost tripled since _____________, as per Census 2011.
Question 335 :
Assertion: Periodic abstinence is a method in which couples avoid from coitus from day 17 to 27 of menstrual cycle.
Reason: Periodic abstinence is a very effective method and 100% sure of birth control.
Question 336 :
Which of the following statements are correct regarding surgical methods of contraception?<br/>(i) These are generally advised to the male/female partner as a terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.<br/>(ii) Surgical procedure in male is called tubectomy and that in the female,<br/><br/>vasectomy.<br/>(iii)<br/><br/>Reversibility is easily possible.<br/>(iv)<br/><br/>They block gamete transport and thereby prevent conception.<br/>
Question 338 :
The population in India is characterised by ________ birth rate and ________ death rate.
Question 339 :
The third stage of demographic transition is characterised with low growth rate of population due to decline in both birth as well as the death rate.
Question 340 :
Which of the following contraceptive methods do involve a role of hormone?
Question 341 :
The approximate national average for Density of Population is ______ persons per square kilometer.
Question 343 :
According to 1991 census, the minimum percent of<br>population increase is in the state<br><br>
Question 344 :
Which among the following are biological methods that are being used to control population growth?
Question 345 :
Which of the following is doesn't come under the barrier method of contraception?
Question 346 :
Which surgical operation is undertaken in a women for planned family?
Question 348 :
Surgically when oviduct is removed or ligated, it is called as<br/>
Question 349 :
In the calender method, mating should be avoided from day ........ to .......... of the cycle.
Question 352 :
Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter :<br/>A. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during the first trimester is generally safe.B. Generally, chances of conception are nil until the mother breast-feeds the infant for up to two years.C. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives.D. Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after coitus to prevent conception.
Question 356 :
Assertion: In a woman after hysterectomy, its ovarian cycle is stopped.
Reason: Because FSH is not secreting.
Question 357 :
Sterilization techniques are generally fool-proof methods of contraception with east side effects. Yet, this is the last option for the couples because<br/>(i) it is almost irreversible<br/>(ii) of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge/drive<br/>(iii) it is a surgical procedure<br/>(iv) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country.<br/>Choose the correct option.<br/>
Question 358 :
In India, the action plans for family planning were initiated in the year
Question 359 :
First country in the world which adopted family planning programme is
Question 361 :
In certain tribes, population does not increase beyond a limit because of
Question 362 :
A saponin called Yamogenin from Yam plant, <i>Dioscorea</i> is used as 
Question 363 :
Assertion: Sex education in schools is not necessary.
Reason: Sex education may increase certain myths and conceptions in the students.
Question 364 :
In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple abstain from intercourse
Question 366 :
After hearing Mr. Saxena's countless and justified explanations on his problem, the doctor said, "Okay! In that case, your request for permanent contraception is granted. I shall sterilize you on the 18th December2013. You will have all your male characteristics intact, so don't worry."<br/>Which of the following procedure Mr. Saxena will be going through?
Question 367 :
Assertion: Saheli, the new oral contraceptive for the females contains a. steroidal preparation.
Reason: Saheli is taken daily without a break.
Question 370 :
Population density in India has shifted from 81 per sq. km. in 1921 to _______ per sq. km. in 2011.
Question 371 : Match the contraceptive methods given under Column - I with their examples given under Column - II. Select the correct choice from those given below :<br><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td> Column - I<br>(Contraceptive Method)</td><td></td><td> Column - II<br> (Examples)</td></tr><tr><td>A.</td><td>Chemical</td><td>p.</td><td>Tubectomy and Vasectomy</td></tr><tr><td>B.</td><td>IUDs</td><td>q.</td><td>Copper T and Loop</td></tr><tr><td>C.</td><td>Barriers</td><td>r.</td><td>Condom and Cervical cap</td></tr><tr><td>D.</td><td>Sterilization</td><td>s.</td><td>Spermicidal Jelly and foam</td></tr><tr><td></td><td></td><td>t.</td><td>Coitus interruptus and calendar method</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 372 :
Which of the following is a hormone - releasing Intra Uterine Device (IUD)?<br/>
Question 374 :
The idea that life originates from preexisting life is referred as
Question 375 :
The idea of Natural Selection as the fundamental process of evolutionary changes was reached
Question 377 :
Formation of which complex molecule was noticed by Urey and Miller, when they subjected substances like $NH_3$, $CH_4$, $H_2O$ etc. to electric discharge?
Question 378 :
In the early Earth, water and$CO_2$ were produced by the combination of$O_2$ with
Question 379 :
The scientist related with the over throw of the "Theory of spontaneous generation" and experiment with swan-necked flask is
Question 385 :
Which one of the following amino acid was not found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment?<br>
Question 389 :
In the double helix model of DNA, what would bethe distance between two consecutive base pairs?
Question 390 :
Which of the following is the co-factor for origin of life from pre-RNA?
Question 391 :
Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given :<br>Ifthe sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcriptionunit is: 5 - A T G A AT G - 3, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcriptwould be
Question 397 :
In  a dsDNA number of phosphodiester bonds are $3250$, then find the number of base pairs.
Question 398 :
Whichof the following biologists has been dubbed as the architect of molecular biology?
Question 401 :
The number of purines in a segment of DNA molecule is 68. What will be the number of pyrimdines in this segment ?
Question 402 :
<i></i><i></i>The experimental system used in studies of the discovery ofreplication of DNA has been<br>
Question 403 :
Which one of the following combinations is found in DNA ?
Question 404 :
The two strands of double helix of DNA are linked together by hydrogen bonds between
Question 405 :
What is the length of human DNA containing $6.6\times10^9$ bp nitrogen bases?
Question 407 :
According to Watson-Crick model, hydrogen bonding in a double-stranded DNA occurs between.
Question 409 :
Which one of the following is the complementary sequence for the DNA with $5'$-CGTACTA-$3'$.
Question 412 :
Watson and Crick were awarded Nobel Prize for their finding of
Question 417 :
Life on earth began with simple RNA molecule was suggested by
Question 421 :
Due to the discovery of which of the following in 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world?
Question 425 :
Which choice describes the incorrect statement regarding the bonding arrangement in the Watson-Crick model of DNA?
Question 426 :
Choose the correct answers from the alternatives given :<br>Ifthe sequence of bases in DNA is TAGC, then the sequence of bases in RNA wouldbe
Question 429 :
In a double-stranded DNA, the sequence of base pairs in one strand is AGCTAAGC. What is the complementary sequence on the other strand?
Question 430 :
The pitch angle of deflection between two successive base pairs in DNA double helix is
Question 431 :
Read the statements given below.<br/><br/>I. Thiamine and Uracil are pyrimidines found in DNA & RNA respectively.<br/>II. Number of base pairs per turn in B - DNA helix is 10.<br/><br/>Choose the correct option.
Question 432 :
During Meselson and Stahl's experiments, heavy DNA wasdistinguished from normal DNA by which type of centrifugation?<br>
Question 434 :
1.38 milimeter DNA is present in E. coli. How many base pair will be present in it?
Question 436 :
A mixture of equal numbers of fast and slow dividing cells is cultured in a medium containing a trace amount of radioactively labeled thymidine for one hour. The cells are then transferred to regular (unlabelled) medium. After 24 hrs of growth in regular media.
Question 438 :
Hypothesis of ''African origin'' of man is based on the study of____________
Question 443 :
Which of the following proves that RNA has the ability to act as catalyst?
Question 448 :
Consider these sentences regarding the structure and nature of DNA.<br/>I. DNA has two pyrimidine bases that contain single ring structure.<br/>II. In DNA, composition of bases should be $\displaystyle\frac{A+T}{G+C}=1$.<br/>III. Each base pair of DNA is $3.4\overset{o}{A}$ apart from other base pairs.<br/>IV. The nucleosome model DNA packaging was proposed by Kornberg and Thomas.<br/>Choose the correct statements from the given options.<br/>
Question 453 :
The incorrect match among the following regarding the disease and it's symptoms is:
Question 457 :
The ability of individuals to adapt to changes in the environment can be considered as
Question 458 :
Which of the following is the initial step towards good health?
Question 460 :
Apart from the cleanliness of one's own body __________also helps to improve personal health.
Question 462 :
Which of the following diseases is due to anallergic reaction ?
Question 464 :
Which of the following symptom shows that a person has malaria?
Question 470 :
.......... practice at regular basis can help reduce risk of various diseases.
Question 482 :
Identify the site where <i>Wuchereria bancrofti</i> is normally found in human body. 
Question 488 :
Which of the following diseases does notrequire use of antibiotics ?
Question 490 :
Cleansing and grooming the human body to prevent infection is called as
Question 497 :
Which of the following factor affect human health? <br/>i. Infections <br/>ii. Silence mutation<br/>iii. Life style <br/>iv. Genetic disorders 
Question 498 :
Read the given statement and select the option that correctly identifies true (T) and false (F) ones<br>(i) Hepatitis virus primarily affects the liver.<br>(ii) Grave's disease occurs due to hyposecretion of thyroid hormones<br>(iii) Cheilosis occurs due to defficiency of vitamin B<br>(iv) Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease whereas anthrax is a viral disease.
Question 500 :
Which of the following aspects can be controlled by an individual to determine the effect on health?
Question 510 :
Ascariasis is a highly prevalent disease caused by an intestinal tapeworm, <i>Taenia solium</i>
Question 511 :
................... in the life cycle of <i>Wuchereria bancrofti</i> causes infection in humans
Question 512 :
Assertion: Cleaning of the ear with the pin is dangerous.
Reason: The damage of eardrum can cause hearing problem.
Question 517 :
Which disease in children is caused by intensive use of nitrate fertiliser?
Question 519 :
Assertion: There is no chance of malaria to a man on<br><br>the bite of male Anopheles mosquito.
Reason: It carries a non-virulant strain of<br><br>Plasmodium
Question 520 :
Education and literacy can be considered as a factor to determine health of a person.
Question 521 :
Poisonous substance released on rupturing of schizont of RBC in a patient of malaria is
Question 526 :
Iron deficiency anaemia is a complication of which of the followingparasitic infection?<span id="_wysihtml5-undo" class="_wysihtml5-temp">
Question 532 :
Note the following features and choose the ones applicable to <i>Wuchereia bancrofti.</i><i><br/></i>A) Coelozoic parasite <br/>B) Histozoic parasite<br/>C) Monogenetic parasite<br/>D) Digenetic parasite<br/>E) Monomorphic acoelomate parasite <br/>F) Dimorphic pseudocoelomate parasite
Question 534 :
The fungus that altered the course of history by reducing the population of Ireland from eight million in 1845 to six-million a decade later was:
Question 535 :
The IPN (Infectious Pancreatic Necrosis) and VMS (Viral Haemorrhagic Septicemia) are well known infectious diseases of
Question 540 :
Which of the following can make you ill if youcome in contact with an infected person ?
Question 544 :
Which stage of a malarial parasite escapes digestion in stomach of mosquito?
Question 545 : Match the diseases / causative organism with its scientist given in list I and II correctly.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td><b>List I</b></td><td></td><td><b>List II</b></td></tr><tr><td>A</td><td>Gonorrhea</td><td>1</td><td>Eberth</td></tr><tr><td>B</td><td>Typhoid</td><td>2</td><td>Klebs</td></tr><tr><td>C</td><td>Diphtheria</td><td>3</td><td>Van Ermengem</td></tr><tr><td>D</td><td>Dysentery</td><td>4</td><td>Shiga</td></tr><tr><td>E</td><td>Botulism</td><td>5</td><td>Neisser</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 548 :
Which one of the following life cycles stages ofmalarial parasite is responsible for relapse ofmalarial symptoms?
Question 551 :
Growing more than one species of fish in the same water body is
Question 556 :
Apiculture is done to obtain the following substances.I. Bees waxII. HoneyIII. PearIV. Gold
Question 559 :
Which of these build the hive, collect nectar and pollen, clean the cells and protect the hive?
Question 563 :
Whichof the following processes include the mass emigration of bees to settle downelsewhere in order to form a new hive ?
Question 567 :
Major fish production from inland water is carried out through culture called as
Question 568 :
Which one of the following substances is at its lowest level present in fish food?
Question 569 :
Nobel prize for deciphering the dance language of Honey Bee was awarded to
Question 571 :
Which of the following state occupies first position in poultry farming?
Question 576 :
The honey bees exhibit a type of dance to communicate the location of food. What is this known as?<br/>
Question 581 : Select the correct match.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>Column-A</td><td>Column-B</td></tr><tr><td>(a) Rock bee</td><td>(i) <i>Apis indica</i></td></tr><tr><td>(b) Little bee</td><td>(ii) <i>Apis dorsata</i></td></tr><tr><td>(c) European bee</td><td>(iii) <i>Apis florea</i></td></tr><tr><td>(d) Indian bee</td><td>(iv) <i>Apis mellifera</i></td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 582 : Match the following.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td>List I</td><td></td><td>List II</td></tr><tr><td>1.</td><td><i>Apis cerena Indica</i></td><td>a.</td><td> African bee</td></tr><tr><td>2.</td><td><i>Apis mellifera </i>            </td><td>b.</td><td> Indian bee</td></tr><tr><td>3.</td><td><i>Apis adamsoni</i></td><td>c.</td><td> Italian bee</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 583 :
Assertion: Beehives are kept in crop field during flowering period.
Reason: Bees are pollinating agents.
Question 584 :
Cross fertilization tests have led to unify different species of North American _____________.
Question 587 :
The term used for birds raised under domestication for economic purposes is called
Question 603 : Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td><b>Column I</b></td><td></td><td><b>Column II</b></td></tr><tr><td>A.</td><td>Labeo rohita</td><td>(i)</td><td>Red junglefowl</td></tr><tr><td>B.</td><td>Gallus gallus</td><td>(ii)</td><td>Rohu</td></tr><tr><td>C.</td><td>Bos indicus</td><td>(iii)</td><td>Tussar silkmoth</td></tr><tr><td>D.</td><td>Antheraea mylitta</td><td>(iv)</td><td>Cattle</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 604 :
Selective breeding of organism (animals husbandry and plant breeding programs) for specific desirable characteristics are example of 
Question 606 :
Which of these protect the hive, collect nectar and pollen and look after the eggs?
Question 608 :
One of the breeding techniques useful to eliminate harmful recessive genes by selection is
Question 611 :
Animal husbandry and plant breeding play a major role in our efforts to increase______________
Question 612 : Honeybee after discovering the new source of nectar or honey can convey this information but<p></p>
Question 615 :
Assertion: A single outcross often helps to overcome inbreeding depression.
Reason: Out-crossing is best breeding method for increasing milk productivity.
Question 617 :
Scientific and commercial method of beekeeping for production of honey and wax is called as
Question 621 :
Select the correct statements regarding honeybees.<br/>(i) The queen bee and the worker bees develop from fertilised eggs and are sexually females.<br/>(ii) Males (drones) develop parthenogenetically. from unfertilised eggs.<br/>(iii) Queen bee feeds upon royal jelly and the worker bees feed upon bee bread.<br/>
Question 622 :
The contrast in the development and social behavior of the western honey bee, Apis mellifera, has been shown to depend on whether bee larvae are fed royal jelly or not.<br>Those larvae fed jelly will accelerate growth and become queens; all others are destined to become drones. The drastically different developmental outcomes occur despite equivalent genomes, suggesting an epigenetic mechanism.<br><br>Which of the following choices would be a feasible mechanism to investigate?
Question 627 : Which of the following two matches are incorrect?<br><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>Sr. No.</td><td>Exotic breeds<br>of cattle</td><td>Country<br>of origin</td></tr><tr><td>(i)</td><td>Jersey</td><td>Holland</td></tr><tr><td>(ii)</td><td>Holstein-Friesian</td><td>Germany</td></tr><tr><td>(iii)</td><td>Ayrshire</td><td>Scotland</td></tr><tr><td>(iv)</td><td>Brown Swiss</td><td>Switzerland</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 628 :
The ideal floor space required for a layer bird is about 
Question 629 :
If the source is opposite to the direction of sun and distance is more than 75 meters then honey bee will convey the direction by
Question 631 :
If a honey bee is conveying an information, by round dance then the distance of source will be about
Question 633 :
Which one of the following is a step in processing of Kipps and Buffs?
Question 639 :
Assertion: Fish and other varieties of aquatic animals are used as food.
Reason: Fish and other varieties of sea food constitute good source of nutrition.
Question 640 :
In the poultry industry, production of hatching flocks is more expensive than production of market eggs mainly because
Question 641 :
Which of the following is the most infective type of bird flu? 
Question 642 :
In India, which of the following species of honey bee is reared in artificial hives?
Question 644 : Match the animal with the product they are primarily associated with.<br/><table class="table table-bordered"><tbody><tr><td> </td><td> <b>List I</b></td><td> </td><td> <b>List II</b></td></tr><tr><td> A</td><td><i>Ovis aries</i></td><td> 1</td><td>Oil</td></tr><tr><td> B</td><td><i>Bos indicus</i></td><td> 2</td><td>Flesh</td></tr><tr><td> C</td><td><i>Mystus seenghala</i></td><td> 3</td><td>Milk</td></tr><tr><td> D</td><td><i>Sibbaldus musculus</i></td><td> 4</td><td>Fur</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 645 :
Fish roes widely used for high biological value are rich in <br/>
Question 648 :
Nobel prize winner for the discovery of method of interpersonal communication in honey bee is ......................
Question 649 :
Assertion: The honey bee queen copulates only ones in her life time.
Reason: The honey bee queen can lay fertilized as well as unfertilized eggs.
Question 650 :
Assertion: Fish meal is a rich source of protein for cattle and poultry.
Reason: Fish meal is produced from non-edible parts of fishes like fins, tail etc.
Question 652 :
Honey bee after discovering the new source of nector / honey can convey the direction
Question 653 :
Cattle fed with spoilt hay of sweet clover which contains dicumarol ..........................
Question 659 :
If the food source is in the opposite direction of sun and distance from the hive is 85 meters, then scout worker bee will convey this information by
Question 663 :
Assertion: The queen honey bee copulates only once in her life time.
Reason: The honey bee queen can lay fertilized as well as unfertilized eggs.
Question 666 :
Honey Bee performs round dance to indicate food source. The distance between hive and food source is
Question 668 :
Organisms that cannot be seen by naked eyes is called as
Question 669 :
Identify two correct statements from the following.<br>(i) Rennin is industrially produced by Mucor pusilus<br>(ii) Streptokinase is industrially produced by Pseudomonas pudica<br>(iii) Alkaline serine protease is produced by Bacillus licheniformis<br>(iv) DNA polymerase is produced by Trichoderma reesi.<br>
Question 671 :
A compound produced by an organism that inhibits the growth of another micro-organism is called
Question 675 :
Assertion: Amoxicillin is a broad spectrum antibiotic.
Reason: It is derived from penicillin G.
Question 676 :
What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge flocs is reduced ?<br>
Question 677 : Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td>Column I</td><td></td><td>Column II</td></tr><tr><td>A.</td><td><i>Aspergillus niger</i></td><td>(i)</td><td>Ethanol</td></tr><tr><td>B.</td><td><i>Clostridium butylicum</i></td><td>(ii)</td><td>Statins</td></tr><tr><td>C.</td><td><i>Saccharomyces cerevisiae</i></td><td>(iii)</td><td>Citric acid</td></tr><tr><td>D.</td><td><i>Trichoderma polysporum</i></td><td>(iv)</td><td>Butyric acid</td></tr><tr><td>E.</td><td><i>Monascus purpureus</i></td><td>(v)</td><td>Cyclosporin</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 682 :
The heat treatment that destroys harmful bacteria and also causes little nutrient damage is
Question 683 :
A sewage treatment process in which a part of decomposer bacteria present in the wastes is recycled into the starting of the process is called as:
Question 689 :
Which one of the following is used in the production of citric acid?
Question 690 :
The product of which has been commercialised for lowering blood cholesterol.
Question 691 :
What is the process called due to which idli and dosa makes it fluffy and soft?
Question 695 :
In the treatment of waste water discharge, which treatment stage involves biological treatment?
Question 696 :
Which of the following antibiotics is not correctly matched with the source from which it is obtained?
Question 697 :
Which of these is not a key factor that helps in the process of decay?
Question 699 :
To produce penicillin, the main fermentable source in the culture is
Question 700 :
Which of the following antibiotics was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in World War II?
Question 702 :
Study the following statements regarding lactic acid bacteria (LAB) which are used to convert milk into curd.<br>(i) They produce adds that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins. <br>(ii) A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk as an inoculum contains millions of LAB, which at suitable temperature, multiply and convert milk into curd. <br>(iii) Conversion of milk into curd improves its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin $B_{12}$. <br>(iv) LAB may result in acidity in the stomach of human beings. <br>Which of the given statements are correct?<br>
Question 706 :
While preparing curd, a little curd is added to warm milk. Reason behind this is<br/>a) Curd contains several microbes which promotes the formation of curd<br/>b) Only lactobacillus present in curd promotes curd formation in milk<br/>c) Lactobacillus multiplies in milk and converts it into curd
Question 707 :
Activated sludge should have the ability to settle quickly so that it can:
Question 715 :
By all of the following ways, bacteria can become resistant to the antibiotic, except - <br/>
Question 716 :
Waste water treatment generates a large amount of sludge, which can be treated by
Question 719 :
In the waste water treatment plant (WWTP) air is pumped into water to
Question 720 :
Select the correct option to fill up the blanks. <br/>(i) _______ are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from the laundry. <br/>(ii) _______ are ripened by growing <i>Penicillium roqueforti </i>on them. <br/>(iii) ______ are produced without distillation whereas,   are produced by distillation of the fermented broth. <br/>(iv) ______ antibiotic was used to treat American soldiers wounded in world war II. <br/>(v) _______ is also called as kusht rog. 
Question 723 :
Which one of the following microbes is the source for vitamin C?<br/>
Question 725 :
Assertion: <i>Saccharomyes cerevisiae </i>produces acetic acid.
Reason: <i>Trichoderma polysporum </i>produces blood chloestrol lowering agent.
Question 729 :
Late blight of potato is caused by ______ that belongs to class _________.
Question 734 : Match the following<table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>i)  <i>Rhizopus</i> 	 	 	 	 </td><td>a) Malaria</td></tr><tr><td>ii) 	 	 	 	 <i>Lactobacillus</i> </td><td>b) Idli, Dosa</td></tr><tr><td>iii) Yeast</td><td>c) Curd formation</td></tr><tr><td>iv) Protozoa</td><td>d) Bread mould</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 737 :
<i>Monascus purpureus</i> is a yeast commercially used in the production of <br/>
Question 738 :
Cyclosporin A, used as immunosuppressive agent in organ transplants is produced by.
Question 743 :
The main reason why antibiotics could not solve all the problems of bacteria mediated diseases is
Question 745 :
<b>Statement 1 :</b> Besides curdling of milk, LAB also improve its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin $B_{12}$. <br/><b>Statement 2 :</b> LAB, when present in human stomach, check disease causing microbes. 
Question 748 :
Select the correct statement.<br/>a) A single cell, <i>Spirulina</i>, can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins etc.<br/>b) Body weight-wise, the micro-organism, <i>Methylophilus methylotrophus</i>, may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day.<br/>c) Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C.<br/>d) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium.
Question 749 : Match the following list of bacteria and their commercially important products. <br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>Bacterium </td><td>Product</td></tr><tr><td>(i) <i>Aspergillus niger</i></td><td>(A) Lactic acid</td></tr><tr><td>(ii)<i> Acetobacter aceti </i></td><td>(B) Butyric acid</td></tr><tr><td>(iii) <i>Clostridium butylicum</i></td><td>(C) Acetic acid</td></tr><tr><td>(iv)<i> Lactobacillus</i><br/></td><td>(D) Citric acid </td></tr></tbody></table><br/>Choose the correct match. <br/>
Question 750 :
Argol, a brown crust, formed during the fermentation of grape juice contains<br/>
Question 757 :
A sewage treatment process, in which a part of decomposing bacteria present in the wastes is recycled into the starting of the process, is called as
Question 759 :
Assertion: <i>Rhizobium</i> lives in the root nodules of leguminous plants.
Reason: It fixes nitrogen through a symbiotic relationship.
Question 762 :
Which of the following antibiotics is not correctly matched with the source from which it is obtained?
Question 764 : Match the following list of bioactive substances and their roles.<br><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>Bioactive Substance</td><td>Role</td></tr><tr><td>(i) Statin</td><td>(A) Removal of oil stains</td></tr><tr><td>(ii) Cyclosporin A</td><td>(B) Removal of dots from blood vessels</td></tr><tr><td>(iii) Streptokinase</td><td>(C) Lowering of blood cholesterol</td></tr><tr><td>(iv) Lipase</td><td>(D) Immuno-suppressive agent</td></tr></tbody></table><br>Choose the correct match.<br>
Question 765 :
Which one of the following is a matching pair of a drug and its category?
Question 767 :
A compound which is produced by an organism and inhibits the growth of other organism is called as
Question 769 :
The microorganism grown on molasses and sold as a food flavouring substance is
Question 770 :
Vitamin $B_{12}$ is an important vitamin required for normal human body functions. Is is produced only by a commensal bacteria present in our intestine and our body absorbs vitamin $B_{12}$ through a glycoprotein called "Intrinsic factor". A disease called the "Blind Loop Syndrome" (BLS) occurs due to over proliferation of this bacterial flora affecting the normal process of digestion and absorption and also leads to vitamin $B_{12}$ deficiency. The appropriate treatment regime for BLS would involve
Question 772 :
The product of which of the following organisms has been commercialised as blood cholestrol lowering agent
Question 775 :
Sewage treatment process in which part of decomposer microbes is recycled into the starting process is
Question 776 :
Which of the following food items is produced by the fermenting activity of microbes? <br/>A. Milk<br/>B. Dosa <br/>C. Toddy <br/>D. Cheese <br/>
Question 778 :
Cellulases and hemicellulases arc in great demand nowadays for the preparation of second-generation:<br>
Question 780 :
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good antibiotic?
Question 782 :
Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?
Question 783 :
Identify the odd word out and say why it is the odd one?<br/>
Question 784 :
Wastewater treatment generates a large quantity of sludge, which can be treated by:
Question 785 :
During the production of tea, the flavouring of leaves is done with the help of
Question 786 : Identify the blank spaces A, B, C and D in the table given below and select the correct answer. <br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td><b>Type of microbe</b></td><td><b>scientific name</b></td><td><b>Product</b></td><td><b>Medical application</b></td></tr><tr><td>Fungus</td><td>A</td><td>Cyclosporin A</td><td>B</td></tr><tr><td>C</td><td><i>Monascus purpureus</i> </td><td>Statin</td><td>D</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 787 :
Sewage treatment in which a portion of decomposer bacteria present in waste is recycled into the beginning of the process is <br/>
Question 789 :
Which one of the following is a wrong matching of a microbe and its industrial product, while the remaining three are correct?
Question 791 :
Assertion: Rennet and fruit extract of <i>Withania somnifera</i> have antagonistic functions.
Reason: Rennet is obtained from calf's liver and is used for curdling of milk.
Question 792 :
Large holes in Swiss cheese are formed due to production of a large amount of ${CO}_{2}$ by
Question 793 :
The .......... enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific point.
Question 798 :
Enzyme that cleaves nuclei acids within the polynucleotide chain is known as
Question 799 :
Which of the following techniques can be used to introduce foreign DNA into the cell?
Question 801 :
Which of the following enzymes cut the DNAmolecule atspecific nucleotide sequence?
Question 807 :
Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA upon entry with _____________.<br/>
Question 808 :
Advancement in genetic engineering has been possible due to discovery of :
Question 813 :
The usual source of restriction endonucleases used in gene cloning is
Question 814 :
Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?<br/>5'-------GAATTC------3'<br/>3'-------CTTAAG------5'<br/>
Question 819 :
How many fragments will be generated in total upon digestion of a closed circular DNA molecule and liner DNA molecule with a same restriction enzyme having six recognition sites on both DNA molecules?
Question 820 :
How many linear DNA fragments will be produced when a circular plasmid is digested with a restriction enzyme having $3$ sites?
Question 821 :
Which of the following option is correct for recombinant DNA technology?<br>
Question 824 :
Recognition site plasmid having 2 Kbp at 500 bp, 800 bp, 1300 bp, 2000 bp<br>How many bands are visualise after gel electrophoresis after treating with R.E.
Question 829 :
Which of these is used as vector in gene therapy for SCID?
Question 831 :
Which one of the following enzyme cuts the DNA within the specific positions?<br/>
Question 833 :
Following statements describe the characteristics of the enzyme Restriction Endonucleases. Identify the incorrect statement.
Question 834 :
Which of the followingis the first hormone prepared by genetic engineering?<br>
Question 835 :
A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding methyl groups to the DNA, It does so to
Question 836 :
Assertion: Restriction enzymes recognise palindromic sequences.
Reason: Palindromic sequences read same in both directions of the two strands.
Question 838 : Match the entries in Column -I with those of Column - II and choose the correct answer.<br><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td><b>Column I</b></td><td><b>Column II</b></td></tr><tr><td>A. Restriction endonucleases</td><td>p. Kohler and Milstein</td></tr><tr><td>B. Polymerase Chain Reaction</td><td>q. Alec Jeffreys</td></tr><tr><td>C. DNA fingerprinting</td><td>r. Arber</td></tr><tr><td>D. Monoclonal antibodies</td><td>s. Karry Mullis</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 839 :
Find the odd one among the following methods of rDNA transfer into host cell.
Question 840 :
In biolistic method of gene transfer, the microparticles coated with foreign DNA are bombarded into target cells at a very high velocity. These microparticles are made up of
Question 841 :
The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of<br/>
Question 842 :
A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as
Question 843 :
Ampicillin-sensitive bacteria are exposed to a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin. They are then spread on two agar growth plates. Plate A contains growth medium only. Plate B contains growth medium and ampicillin.<br/>Which plate might be expected to have cultures of ampicillin-resistant bacteria growing on it?
Question 844 :
How many fragments will be generated on the digestion of a closed circular DNA molecule with a restriction enzyme having six recognition sites on the DNA?
Question 848 :
Which one of the following is a recognition site for restriction enzyme Bam HI?<br>
Question 850 :
Which one of the following hydrolyses internal phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?<br/>
Question 856 :
In the nomenclature of enzyme restriction endonuclease, the roman numeral indicates<br/>
Question 858 :
A scientist is trying to engineer a plasmid for purposes of genetically modifying crops.<br/>What is the most appropriate first step in the process?
Question 859 :
If we want to recover more copies of target (desired) DNA then it should be cloned in a vector having ___________________.
Question 860 :
Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.
Reason: Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Question 864 :
Restriction endonuclease cuts DNA at specific sites and cellular DNA is not damaged as
Question 865 :
For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA to be bombarded with biolistic gene gun are made up of<br/>
Question 866 :
How many fragments will be generated if you digest a linear DNA molecule with a restriction enzymehaving four recognition sites on the DNA?
Question 868 :
An enzyme that cleaves DNA recognizes an 8 base-pair unique DNA sequence. The probable number of times this enzyme will cleave a 70 kilobase pair random DNA sequence is
Question 870 :
Assertion: Recognition site should be preferably single and responsive to commonly used restriction enzymes.
Reason: In $pBR 322$ alien $DNA$ is ligated generally in the area of $Bam-HI$ site of tetracycline resistance gene.
Question 871 :
Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?
Question 872 :
Bacteria uses restriction endonuclease to protectitself from viral attack. The bacterial DNA does not get degraded by its own enzyme because
Question 873 :
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge population which expresses the desired gene.
Question 878 :
Nobel Prize of 1978 for restriction endonuclease technology was given to
Question 880 :
Restriction endonuclease, an enzyme used in genetic engineering is employed for<br/>
Question 882 :
A genetically engineered micro - organism used successfullyin remeditation of oil spills is a species of<br>
Question 883 :
The sticky ends of a fragmented DNA molecule are made up of
Question 884 :
In biotechnology application, a selectable marker is incorporated in a plasmid
Question 886 :
Which one of the following is wrong?<br/>(A) The first transgenic cow Rosie, produced milk which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.<br/>(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.<br/>(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of R-DNA technology.<br/>(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of R-DNA into the host.<br/><br/>
Question 888 :
Genomic DNA is digested with Alu $I$, a restriction enzyme which is a four base - pair cutter. What is the frequency with which it will cut the DNA assuming a random distribution of bases in the genome?<br/>
Question 890 :
In a cloning experiment using E.coli, a DNA fragment was inserted in an EcoRI restriction site of a plasmid vector that contained the $kan^{R}$ and $spec^{R}$ genes for resistance to the antibiotics kanamycin and spectinomycin, respectively. It was observed that all the positive clones (containing the DNA fragment of interest) grew on medium with kanamycin but not on media containing spectinomycin. Colonies, which grew on media with both antibiotics, did not contain the fragment of interest. In the absence of any other confounding factors, the statement(s) which could independently explain these observations is/are
Question 891 :
Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because
Question 893 :
Assertion: In recombinant DNA technology, human genes are often transferred into bacteria (prokaryotes) or yeast (eukaryote).
Reason: Both bacteria and yeast multiply very fast to form huge populations which express the desired gene.
Question 894 :
Which of the following contains the key tools for recombinant DNA technology?<br>(i) Restriction endonucleases, ligases, vectors(ii) Ligases, host organism, polymerase enzymes(iii) Vectors, Taq polymerase, primers(iv) Restriction exonucleases, ligases, primers, bioreactors<br>
Question 895 :
The nuclease enzyme which begins its attack fromfree end of a polynucleotide is
Question 896 :
Which of the following is the advantage of meiotic recombination in diploids?
Question 897 :
Select the correct option to fill up the blanks.<br/>(i) _____ is a natural polymer extracted from ______.(ii) The DNA fragments purified by gel electrophoresis are used in constructing _____ by joining them with ______.(iii) The ligation of alien DNA is carried out at a _____ present in one of the two ____ in a plasmid vector.(iv) _____ enzyme remains active during the high temperature-induced denaturation of ds DNA. DNA fragments are resolved according to their ______(v) through _____ in agarose gel electrophoresis.<br/>
Question 900 :
Amongst the following four statements (A-D) some are wrong.<br/><br/>A) Unarmed pathogen vectors are also used in the transfer of recombinant DNA into the host.<br/>B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.<br/>C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of separating recombinant DNA from other macro-molecules.<br/>D)The first transgenic sheep, Rosie produced enriched milk with human $\alpha$-lactalbumin.<br/>Which are the two statements with mistakes?
Question 901 :
Assertion: Restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA to produce sticky ends.
Reason: Stickiness of the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Question 902 :
The new strain of bacteria produced by biotechnology in bioremediation is
Question 903 :
The thermostable enzymes, 'Taq' and 'Pfu', isolated from thermophilic bacteria are.
Question 906 :
A piece of nucleic acid used to find a gene by forming a hybrid with it, is called as<br/>
Question 909 :
Restriction endonucleases were used by Cohen and Boyer's DNA experiments for
Question 910 :
The species of plants, that play a vital role in controlling the relative abundance of other species in a community are called as<br/>
Question 916 :
Large unit of land having different types of plants and animals is known as
Question 917 :
Which of the following includes all living organisms and all life-supporting regions of the Earth?
Question 919 :
Which of the following does not have aeffect onthe forest ecosystem?<br>
Question 920 :
The part of the biosphere which contains soil is known as 
Question 924 :
Which of the following types of organisms occupies more than one trophic level in a pond ecosystem?
Question 928 :
Rate of production of new population per unit of population per unit time is
Question 929 :
Name the term used to describe a single dominant species, that dictates community structure<br/>
Question 930 :
Amoeba, Hydra, Jellyfish, plants and animals; all are living things so by definition they are
Question 933 :
All the living organisms and non-living factors of the Earth constitute
Question 938 :
Major ecological community of plants and animals extending over large natural area is known as<br>
Question 939 :
I. Temperature <br/>II. Humidity <br/>III. Vegetation <br/>The abiotic factors of ecosystem include
Question 943 :
A large regional unit characterised by a major vegetation type and associated fauna found in a specific climatic zone constitutes a/an
Question 945 :
Plant species having a wide range of genetical distribution evolve into a local population known as<br>
Question 946 :
The reproduction and other activities of living organisms are affected by the abiotic components of ecosystem.
Question 947 :
Study of periodical changes in plants in relation to season is called as
Question 952 :
Information about birth rate, death rate, sex ratio, age distribution, etc. of a population is obtained from
Question 955 :
Which ecosystem has maximum number of producers in an unit area?
Question 957 :
The great barrier reed along the cast coast of Australia can be categorized as?
Question 958 :
If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of the earth will
Question 961 :
Assertion: With increase in population size, environmental resistance tends to increase.<br/>
Reason: This is a nature's way to check the expression of biotic potential.
Question 965 :
The Great Barrier Reef along the east coast ofAustralia can be categorized as
Question 967 :
The population size that an environment can sustain is called the
Question 970 :
The two basic processes which contribute to a decrease in population density are
Question 972 :
The restricted distribution of the species in a small area is called
Question 975 :
Plant species with wide range of distribution evolves into local populations called
Question 977 :
The maximum possible number of individuals that a habitat can support is called its _________________.
Question 980 :
Last level in ecological hierarchy in which only living factors are being studied:-
Question 986 :
Carrying capacity for a population is estimated at 500 the population size is currently 400 and max=0.01. What is dN/dt?
Question 990 :
The term biosphere is used for the zone of the Earth, where life exists 
Question 992 :
If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur?
Question 993 :
Which of the following factors influence population density under normal conditions?
Question 995 :
The most important factor, which determined the increase in human population in India during the 20th century.
Question 1000 :
Which of these forests are found between the equator and the Tropic of Cancer?
Question 1001 :
Assertion: There is no loss of water by transpiration below the forest canopy.
Reason: Forest canopy is exposed to sunlight and wind and acts as effective wind and light barrier.
Question 1004 :
Which of the following biomass has few trees, hot climate throughout the year and alternating wet and dry seasons?
Question 1005 :
In what way a plant growing on a forest floor is adapted for its survival?
Question 1010 :
The minimum temperature in the sea is .......... , while in freshwater ponds it never goes below ..........
Question 1011 :
The vegetation found between tree line and snow line is called as
Question 1013 :
The equation $\displaystyle \frac{\Delta N_n}{\Delta N_t}$ = B represents which of thefollowing?
Question 1014 :
Without our present day atmosphere the averagesurface temperature of the earth would be<br>
Question 1016 :
The percentage of land covered by forest in the world is 
Question 1020 :
Assertion: Realised natality is always less than potential natality.
Reason: Their ratio determines the normal growth rate of population.
Question 1021 :
If in a population showing sigmoid growth curve the value of K - N/K is 0.95, then what is true for this population.
Question 1024 :
Natural habitats that were once large and connected have become more fragmented due to human activities. Wildlife corridors between the fragments of habitat are necessary to maintain wildlife habitat and natural areas.<br/>Which of these is a benefit of wildlife corridors?<br/>I.Allows young adult animals to access a new range.<br/>II. Improves genetic fitness as adult animals interact with potential mates in other areas. III. Allows plants and animals to colonize new habitat as the climate changes.<br/>
Question 1025 :
State the following statement true or false:<br/>Rainforest forms the largest habitat on the planet.
Question 1027 :
Assertion: Rice field is an ecosystem for plants and animals.
Reason: Gut of human/animals is an ecosystem for flora and fauna.
Question 1028 :
Assertion: Biotic community has higher position than population in ecological hierarchy.
Reason: Population of similar individuals remains isolated in the community.
Question 1031 : Below are some common ecological terms and their respective equivalents. Match these from the codes given below.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>1. Environment biology</td><td>A. Biogeocenosis</td></tr><tr><td>2. Biotic community</td><td>B. Ecosphere</td></tr><tr><td>3. Ecosystem</td><td>C. Population</td></tr><tr><td>4. Biosphere</td><td>D. <b></b><b></b>Biocoenosis</td></tr><tr><td>5. Groups of individuals of any one kind of organism</td><td>E. Ecology</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 1033 :
Ability of the community to come back quickly toits original form is
Question 1036 :
Assertion: The collective and continuous growth of plants in space is called biome.
Reason: Coral reefs have richest biomes.
Question 1037 : Match the befitting definitions with the phenomenon given.<table class="table table-bordered"><tbody><tr><td> </td><td> <b>List I</b></td><td> </td><td><b> List II</b></td></tr><tr><td>A</td><td>Eurythermal</td><td>1</td><td>Able to line within narrow range of temperature</td></tr><tr><td>B</td><td>Stenothermal</td><td>2</td><td>Species appear similar to another </td></tr><tr><td>C</td><td>Conformers</td><td>3</td><td>Organisms of stable environments where internal environment can vary with external</td></tr><tr><td>D</td><td>Dormancy</td><td>4</td><td>Temporary suspension of growth and development in organisms life cycle</td></tr><tr><td> </td><td> </td><td>5</td><td>Tolerating wide range of temperature</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 1038 :
Which of the following communities are more vulnerable to invasion, by outside animals and plants?<br>
Question 1041 :
Assertion: Cherrapunji in Khasi hills has the heaviest rainfall along with Teral region of Himalayas.
Reason: South-east monsoon strikes the Himalayas at right angles and the vapour laden monsoon air gets condensed and causes heavy rainfall.
Question 1042 :
The adaptation exhibited by plants inhabiting warm, dry environments isI. Conversion of carbon dioxide to a four-carbon compoundII. Closure of stomata throughout the nightIII. Photorespiration
Question 1043 :
Which of the following factors affect human life with increasing to population density?
Question 1044 :
A correction or alleviation of a genetic disorder by the introduction of a normal gene copy into an affected individual is called as
Question 1046 :
Which of the following biomolecules can be analysed by ELISA test?
Question 1047 :
Which of the following processes involves transferring and combination of desirable characteristic features into plants and multiply them ?
Question 1051 :
In an experiment the gene of bioluminescence from firefly has been successfully transferred into a plant as a result of which it started to glow. In the terminology of the molecular genetics, the plant is called ___________.<br/>
Question 1052 :
After removal of signal peptide, the secretory protein involved in formation of insulin is known as
Question 1054 :
"Introduction of a normal functional gene into cells, in order to replace defective or mutated gene'." is known as 
Question 1057 :
Which of the following techniques use radioactive precursors for observing metabolic activities of macromolecules?
Question 1059 :
X technique is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDs patients. It is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients too. It is a powerful technique to identify many other genetic disorders. Identify X-
Question 1060 :
Diabetes is caused due to the deficiency of insulin in the blood.
Question 1062 :
Fearing that the child to be born may have a genetic disorder, a couple goes to a doctor. Which one of the following techniques is likely to be suggested by the doctor to cure the genetic disorder?
Question 1063 :
A person suspected to suffer from AIDS is advised to undergo ............ diagnostic test.
Question 1065 :
The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by tissue culture method is called as
Question 1066 :
Which of the following statements is incorrect about gene therapy in ADA deficiency?
Question 1068 :
Which of the following technique is employed to check the progression of a restriction enzyme digestion?
Question 1069 :
Immune deficiency disorder, which occur due to mutation in gene, involved in maturation of T and B lymphocytes is
Question 1070 :
Multiple Choice QuestionWhich one of the following is now being commercially produced by biotechnological procedures?<br/>
Question 1072 :
Which of the following is a term used for the specific substance whose presence is being quantitatively or qualitative analysed?
Question 1074 :
NaCl is harmful to most crop plants. A scientist at the University of Toronto genetically modified a plant so that it could be grown in dry parts of the world where the available water has a high level of NaCl. This genetically modified plant copes with the high levels of NaCl by transporting salt into its vacuoles where it accumulates to abnormally high levels. Which feature would be observed in the genetically modified plant when compared to a non-modified plant?
Question 1075 :
Assertion: One application of genetic engineering is the production of human insulin by microbes.
Reason: Gene for production of human insulin can be transferred to <i>Escherichia coli </i>by recombinant DNA technique.
Question 1077 :
High levels of aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content in maize plants prevent the attack by
Question 1078 :
Cultivated rice has been protected from four diseases after receiving genes from<br/>
Question 1080 :
A person suffering from <i>E.coli </i>infection can trace the level of enterotoxin by which of the following technique?
Question 1081 :
Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?
Question 1082 :
Plants in comparison to animals are more rapidly manipulated by genetic engineering. Select out the most probable reason for this.
Question 1084 :
Assertion : Genital herpes cannot be cured if recurrent.Reason : Genital herpes can be inhibited by acyclovir.
Question 1086 :
Which of the following genes were introduced in cotton to protect it from cotton bollworms?
Question 1087 :
Assertion: ELISA test is based on antigen-antibody interactions where a pathogen can be detected by the presence of antibodies (proteins, glycoproteins, etc.) on it.
Reason: The pathogen antibody to be identified is immibilised on the surface of specially constructed ELISA plares and is then tested.
Question 1088 :
In gene therapy, DNA is inserted into a cell to compensate for
Question 1090 :
_______ a crown gall bacterium, is called as 'natural genetic engineer' of plants.<br/>
Question 1092 :
Which of the following criteria must be considered while selecting enzyme for the ELISA?
Question 1093 :
Scientists have been able to splice the eukaryotic gene for the production of human insulin into the genome of bacterial cells and induce those bacteria to express the gene and produce insulin. This suggests which of the following?<br/>
Question 1095 :
Which of the following techniques can be used to detect genetic disorders in humans?
Question 1096 :
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regards to the disadvantages of GM crops?
Question 1097 :
Transgenic plants have been shown to express the genes of<br/>I) Insulin<br/>II) Interferons<br/>III) Human growth hormones<br/>IV) Antibodies<br/>V) Antibiotics<br/>
Question 1100 :
Which of the following companies started selling $Humulin$  in the year 1983?
Question 1102 :
a functional ADAcDNA can be introduced into cells of the patients receiving gene therapy by using vector constituted by
Question 1106 :
Assertion: PCR technique is helpful in detecting bacteria and viral disease even when symptoms of the disease are not yet visible.
Reason: Very low concentrations of bacteria or viruses in human body can be detected by amplification of their nucleic acids using the PCR technique.
Question 1107 :
Assertion: Humilin synthesizes in the form of proinsulin.<br/><br/>Reason: C - peptide is not seen in mature insulin.
Question 1110 :
Some of the steps involved in the production of humulin aregiven below. Choose the correct sequence.<br>(i) Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially.<br>(ii) Culturing recombinant <i>E.coli</i> in bioreactors.<br>(iii) Purification of humulin.<br>(iv) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid.<br>(v) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into <i>E.coli</i>.<br>(vi) Extraction of recombinant gene product from <i>E.coli</i>.<br>
Question 1111 :
Maximum utilization techniques of biotechnology has been made in the field of
Question 1115 :
Assertion: Western blotting and ELISA tests are used to detect HIV infection in human.
Reason: These two techniques use same genomic probes (RNA), which are found in HIV.
Question 1117 :
Select the correct options to fill up the blanks.<br>(i) ______enzymes is crucial for the immune system to function and its absence is caused by the deletion of a gene.<br>(ii) Insulin consists of _____and _____that are linked together by ____.<br>(iii) Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the _____.<br>(iv)______involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA.
Question 1119 :
Assertion: The direct ELISA differs from the indirect ELISA.
Reason: Indirect ELISA involves the antigen binding to the primary antibody which then is detected by a labelled secondary antibody.
Question 1122 :
Which of the following would not<b> </b>be a valid reason to use PCR?
Question 1124 :
A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired immuno deficiency syndrome. Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
Question 1126 :
Basic principle of developing transgenic plants and animals is to introduce the gene of interest into the nucleus to.
Question 1127 :
Assertion: One application of genetic engineering is the production of human insulin by microbes.
Reason: Gene for production of human insulin can be transferred to <i>Escherichia coli</i> by recombinant DNA technique.
Question 1128 :
What effect does eating genetically modified foods have on your genes?
Question 1129 :
Assertion: The milk of transgenic cow, Rosie, was nutritionally more balanced then normal cow milk
Reason: $\alpha -1 $ antitrypsin is a biological produced by transgenic animals.
Question 1131 :
Which one of the following bacteria is used for production of transgenic plants?
Question 1133 :
Arrange the following steps of ELISA in sequential order.<br/>a) Addition of substrate in the linked enzyme.b) Attachment of antibody conjugated with an enzyme.<br/>c) Coating of virus sample on the surface.
Question 1135 :
Some of the steps involved in the production of humulin are given. Choose the correct sequence (i) Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially (ii) Culturing recombinant E.coli in bioreactors (iii) Purification of humulin (iv) Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid (v) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E. coli (vi) Extraction of recombinant gene product from E. coli.
Question 1136 :
Some of the steps involved in the production of humulin are given below. Choose the correct sequence.<br/>(i) Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially.<br/>(ii) Culturing recombinant <i>E.coli</i> in bio reactors.<br/>(iii) Insertion of human insulin gene into a plasmid.<br/>(iv) Introduction of recombinant plasmid into <i>E.coli.</i><br/>(v) Extraction of recombinant gene product from<i> E.coli.</i>
Question 1138 :
Which of the following is an improved variety of wheat crop?
Question 1139 :
Humulin is produced by genetic engineering using one of the following organisms.
Question 1141 :
The process of RNA interference has been used in the development of plants resistant to
Question 1143 :
Diseases that are caused by the malfunction of a phototropic gene are:
Question 1145 :
Assertion: All GM organisms are rich in chimeric DNA.
Reason: Chimeric DNA constitutes genes of two different organisms.
Question 1146 :
Gene therapy for deleterious mutations in blood cells is becoming possible by introducing normal genes intoblood cell precursors in the laboratory and re-injecting these cells into the patient. Which of the followingwould not be associated with this kind of gene therapy research?
Question 1148 :
Read the following statements regarding ELISA and select the incorrect one.
Question 1149 :
Some of the steps involved in the production of humulin are given below. Choose the correct sequence.<br>I. Synthesis of gene (DNA) for human insulin artificially<br>II. Culturing recombinant E.coli in bioreactors<br>III. Purification of humulin<br>IV. Insertion of human insulin gene into plasmid<br>V. Introduction of recombinant plasmid into E.coli<br>VI. Extraction of recombinant gene product from E.coli
Question 1150 :
In transgenics, the expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by<br>
Question 1156 :
The food made from genetically modified crops required to pass human testing because
Question 1159 :
One important achievement of genetic engineering has been the production of<br/>
Question 1161 :
Which of the following habitats is most unsuitable for primary productivity?<br>
Question 1163 :
The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical energy of organic molecules is<br>
Question 1165 :
The sphere of living matter together with water, air and soil on the surface of earth is called as
Question 1179 :
Gross primary productivity is the rate of productivity of _______ during photosynthesis
Question 1180 :
Which of the following is an example of a man-made ecosystem?
Question 1181 :
Which of the following ecosystem has the highest gross primary productivity?<br/>
Question 1191 :
Which of the following relations is correct regarding GPP and NPP of an ecosystem?
Question 1192 :
Ecological factors, which prevent a species from producing at its maximum rate is termed as <br/>
Question 1196 :
The biotic and abiotic components interacting with each other in a pond form
Question 1198 :
Rate of storage of organic matter not used by heterotrophs is termed as<br>
Question 1202 :
Rate of conversion of light energy into chemical energy of organic molecules in an ecosystem is<br>
Question 1204 :
Total amount of energy trapped by green plants in food is called as
Question 1208 :
The least inclusive level of ecological organization that includes interactions among living and non-living factors is
Question 1211 :
We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium needs to be cleaned because
Question 1212 :
In the residential area at night, the standard limit of sound intensity is ........... decibel.<br/>
Question 1213 :
When the two ecosystems overlap each other, the area is called as
Question 1217 :
Assertion: During succession, nutrient availability decreases while biomass level increases.
Reason: NCP decreases during succession.
Question 1219 :
The energy which is present in the biomass of plant is known as <br/>
Question 1221 :
When we study the full assortment of organisms in an area as well as the abiotic environment that affects them, we are studying the
Question 1223 :
The interaction of a species with the environment is called as
Question 1224 :
Assertion: Net primary productivity is less than the gross primary productivity.
Reason: Net primary productivity is equal to the gross primary productivity minus the respiration losses.
Question 1225 :
Gross primary productivity is the rate of production of ____ during photosynthesis.<br/>
Question 1226 :
If carbon dioxide is withdrawn from the biosphere, which organism would first experience negative effects<br><br>
Question 1227 :
The total energy fixed by a gram plant (<i>Cicer arietinum</i>) in an ecosystem as a whole is called as<br/>
Question 1229 :
Arrange the following ecosystems in increasing order of their mean NPP(tons/ha/year).<br>A. Tropics deciduous forest<br><b></b>B. Temperature coniferous forest<br>C. Tropical rainforest<br>D. Temperate deciduous forest.<br>
Question 1232 : The mean biomass per unit area and the net primary productivity for four ecosystems P, Q, R and S are tabulated.<table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>Ecosystem</td><td>Mean biomass per unit area (kg $m^{-2}$)</td><td>Net primary productivity (g $m^{-2}yr^{-1}$)</td></tr><tr><td>P</td><td>$1.6$</td><td>$500$</td></tr><tr><td>Q</td><td>$2.0$</td><td>$2000$</td></tr><tr><td>R</td><td>$44$</td><td>$2000$</td></tr><tr><td>S</td><td>$0.67$</td><td>$71$</td></tr></tbody></table><br>The four ecosystems most likely could be.<br>
Question 1234 :
An ecosystem may be a small or a large sized based on kind of 
Question 1238 :
In a grassland ecosystem, if the number of primary producers(plants) is approximately $6$ million, the number of top carnivores, which may be supported by them will be.
Question 1240 :
Which of the following aquatic ecosystems has very little primary productivity
Question 1242 :
Productivity is the rate of production of biomass expressed in terms of.<br>(i) $(kcal m^{-3})yr^{-1}$<br>(ii) $g^{-2}yr^{-1}$<br>(iii) $g^{-1}yr^{-1}$<br>(iv) $(kcal m^{-2})yr^{-1}$<br>
Question 1245 :
In deep fresh water ponds, different layers of water with different temperatures are noticed. This is known as<br/>
Question 1246 :
During photosynthesis, the gross primary productivity is the rate of production of 
Question 1247 :
Which one of the following aspects is not a component of functional unit of ecosystem?
Question 1249 :
Rate of formation of organic matter by rabbit in a grassland is<br>
Question 1251 :
Ecosystem can be recognised as self-regulating and self sustaining unit of
Question 1255 :
In an ecosystem, the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis is termed as
Question 1259 :
Upper reaches of a river does not possess many living beings because of<br>
Question 1260 :
An ecosystem undergoes a sudden drastic change that now favors organisms with an extreme phenotype. Which one of the following is true for such an ecosystem?
Question 1261 :
Which of the following constitutes the largest ecosystem of the world?
Question 1262 :
Which of these ecosystems has the lowest primary productivity per square meter?
Question 1263 :
In an aquatic environment, microscopic animals and plants are collectively known as
Question 1264 :
The amount of carbon absorbed in form $CO_2$ by $1$ hectare of healthy and productive forest in one year is
Question 1265 :
Which part of the pond ecosystem does not get affected by the temperature?
Question 1266 :
Which of the following is expected to have the highest value ($gm/m^2/yr$) in a grassland ecosystem?
Question 1267 :
Assertion: Oceans and lakes tend to maintain a relatively constant temperature.
Reason: Water has high heat capacity and it can withhold large amounts of heat.
Question 1268 :
Living organisms has not effect on the abiotic factor around them in an ecosystem.
Question 1269 :
A stable lake ecosystem shows net primary production which is equal to the 
Question 1271 :
Choose the correct answers from the alternatives given :<br>Which of the following factors is least likely to affect the type of organism colonizing a pond
Question 1272 :
The rate at which producers in an ecosystem capture and store chemical energy as biomass is called as
Question 1274 :
Number of primary producers per unit area would be maximum in<br>
Question 1275 :
Which of the following state of an ecosystem helps it to avoid changes?
Question 1276 :
The difference between stream and river ecosystems and other ecosystems lies in the fact that streams and rivers
Question 1277 :
Quantities of mineral nutrients in soils of tropical rainforests are relatively low because
Question 1279 :
Identify the organisms that belong to the benthos of lake ecosystem.
Question 1280 :
Assertion: Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration.
Reason: Secondary productivity is produced by heterotrophs.
Question 1283 :
The amount of biomass product per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is called
Question 1285 :
Which of the following statements differentiates between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems?
Question 1289 :
Assertion: Herbivore productivity is approximately $10\%$ of gross productivity of producers.
Reason: Herbivores eat less and waste a lot of food energy
Question 1290 :
Which is the best example of interaction of biotic and abiotic factors of ecosystem?
Question 1291 :
Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is 170 tons of organic matted and amount used in respiration is 50 tons. Calculate the net primary productivity of the ecosystem.
Question 1293 :
What are the components of the common food chain of a pond ecosystem?
Question 1294 :
Assertion: Ecosystem is the structural and functional unit of biosphere consisting of abiotic and biotic components which interact with each other and maintain a balance in nature.
Reason: In an ecosystem, energy and matter are continuously exchanged between living and non-living components.
Question 1310 :
One of the chief reasons among the following for the depletion in the number of species making it endangered is<br/>
Question 1311 :
Number of plant species estimated to be present in India is<br>
Question 1313 :
Percentage of insect species out of the total known organisms is
Question 1316 :
India is one of the twelve megadiversity countries with ______ of genetic resources of the world.<br/>
Question 1318 :
Species going to be extinct due to low reproductive rate is<br/>
Question 1319 :
................ is a measure of the variety of organisms present in different ecosystems.
Question 1325 :
Who observed that within a region, species richness increased with increasing explored area but only upto a limit?<br/>
Question 1327 :
The state of Gujarat has river, desert, forest and lake ecosystems, thus exhibiting a diversity of life. This is an example of ................. diversity.<br/>
Question 1328 :
Which of the following statements regarding the estimates of number of species found on earth is not correct?
Question 1329 :
Let no one species encroach over the right and privileges of other species is the stanza from<br>
Question 1332 :
Habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, alien species invasion and co-extinction are causes for<br>
Question 1333 :
Assertion : Diversity observed in the entire geographical area is called as gamma diversity.<br/><br/>Reason : Biodiversity decreases from high altitude to low altitude.<br/>
Question 1334 :
The total number of species of plants, animals and microorganisms living on the Earth is called as
Question 1336 : Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: <br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td><b>List-I (Region)</b></td><td></td><td><b>List-II (Characteristic vegetation)</b></td></tr><tr><td>A.</td><td>Selvas</td><td>1.</td><td>Tropophytes</td></tr><tr><td>B.</td><td>Savanna</td><td>2.</td><td>Mosses and lichens</td></tr><tr><td>C.</td><td>Tundra</td><td>3.</td><td>Epiphytes</td></tr><tr><td>D.</td><td>Monsoon land</td><td>4.</td><td>Grasses and trees</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 1338 :
The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of twodifferent habitats is known as<br>
Question 1339 :
The number of taxa present within a particular area or an ecosystem is<br/>
Question 1340 :
Which of the following are the four major coral reef regions of India meant for intensive conservation and management ?<br>(i) Gulf of Mannar<br>(ii) Lakshadweep Islands<br>(iii) Gulf of kutch<br>(iv) Gulf of Khambat<br>(v) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Question 1341 :
On a logarithmic scale, the species area relationship is a straight line described by the equation log S = log C + Z log A.<br>What does S, C, Z and A represent in the given equation? Select the correct answer from the codes given below.<br>Species richness = 1<br>Slope of the line = 2<br>Y- intercept = 3<br>Area = 4
Question 1343 :
Different varieties of Indian mangoes are most popular in Western and some other European countries. The varieties with different flavour, colour, sugar and fleshy counter is due to
Question 1344 :
Which of the following are the new species of freshwater catfish discovered in Idukki and Pathanamthitta districts of Kerala in November 2013?<br/>1. Horabagrus melanosoma<br/>2. Mystus heoki<br/>3. Mystus indicus<br/>4. Mystus miami<br/>Select the answers from the codes given below:
Question 1346 :
Which one of the following shows maximum genetic diversity in India?
Question 1348 :
The variety of forms of life found in a region is called as
Question 1349 :
The term "the evil quarter" is related with four major causes of
Question 1352 :
Which of the following is referred as Evil Quartet with reference to loss of biodiversity?<br/>
Question 1353 :
Four species of birds have different egg colours: [1] white with no markings, [2] pale brown with no markings, [3] grey-brown with dark streaks and spots, [4] pale blue with dark blue-green spots. Based on egg colour, which species is most likely to nest in a deep tree hole?<br/>
Question 1357 :
In India, we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even shelf life. The large variation is in account of<br/>
Question 1359 :
Given below are a few statements related to biodiversity. Pick those that are correctly related to biodiversity <br/>(a)  Biodiversity refers to the different species of flora and fauna present in an area.<br/>(b)  Biodiversity refers to only the flora of a given area.<br/>(c)  Biodiversity is greater in a forest.<br/>(d)  Biodiversity refers to the total number of individuals of a particular species living in an area.<br/>Which of the above statements are correct?
Question 1360 :
Which of the following is responsible for the extinction of wildlife?<br/>
Question 1364 :
This vulnerable species exclusively (99 percent) feeds on bamboo. It is found in China. It has large, distinctive black patches around its eyes, over the ears and across its round body. Name the species.
Question 1365 :
The number of taxa present within a particular area or an ecosystem is<br>
Question 1367 :
The diversity of organisms sharing the same habitat or community is termed as
Question 1368 :
How many species are believed to exist on Earth at present time?
Question 1370 :
Some dog breeds have more potential to cause injuries than other breeds and thus, they are said to be dangerous. Which among the following is the most dangerous breed of dogs?
Question 1371 :
The species diversity decreases from lower to higher altitudes on a mountain. This is due to
Question 1372 :
The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as<br/>
Question 1373 :
Which scientist proposed alpha<span class="MathJax_Preview"><span class="MathJax"><span class="math"><span class="mrow"><span class="mi"><span class="MJX_Assistive_MathML">α types species diversity?<br/>
Question 1377 :
This plant consists of only two leaves and a stem with roots. Its two leaves continuously grow to a length of $2-4$ metres and usually become split into several strap - shaped sections. It is a very long-living plant, living between $400$ and $1500$ years. Identify this plant.
Question 1378 :
Discovery of new species has recently picked up due to project _________.<br/>
Question 1379 :
This flower produces enormous trumpet - shaped flowers, which smell of rotting meat. Each flower lasts for two days. On the first day, it is in the female phase, attracting flies by its foul smell. On the next day, the flower changes to male phase and pollen is deposited on the pollinators. Which flower is this?
Question 1382 :
It was the largest known carnivorous marsupial of modern times. It was native to Tasmania and believed to have become extinct in $20^{th}$ century. Which animal are we talking about?
Question 1386 :
Study the four statements (a-d) given below and select the two correct ones out of them.<br/>(a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being consumers.<br/>(b) Predator star fish, <i>Pisaster</i> helps in maintaining species diversity of some invertebrates.<br/>(c) Predators ultimately lead to the extinction of prey species.<br/>(d) Production of chemicals such as nicotine, strychnine by the plants are metabolic disorders.<br/>The two correct statements are <br/>
Question 1389 :
The presence of diversity at the junction of territories to two different habitats is known as
Question 1391 :
Assertion: Genetic diversity within species increases with the increase in habitat variations.
Reason: It is essential for adaptation to varied environments.
Question 1393 :
What is the approximate ratio of animals and plants species in our country? 
Question 1396 :
A weed, which has invaded many forest lands of India is<br>
Question 1399 : Match the following:<br><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>A. $\alpha$ diversity</td><td>1. The richness of different species in a habitat.</td></tr><tr><td>B. $\beta$ diversity</td><td>2. The richness of different species along with a gradient from one habitat to another habitat within the community.</td></tr><tr><td>C. $\gamma$ diversity</td><td>3. The richness of different species in different habitat.</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 1401 :
Tahina spectabilis is a gigantic palm found only in remote parts of north-west Madagascar. It lives for about $50$ years, then flower only once, and dies soon after. What is the common name of this flower?
Question 1404 :
Which one of the following is the first in allopatric speciation?
Question 1405 :
Which among the following is mainly responsible for the extinction of wildlife? <br/>
Question 1407 :
Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global biodiversity?
Question 1408 :
A graph of species richness vs area on log-log axes is?
Question 1410 :
Which one of the following pairs of geographicalareas show maximum biodiversity in our country?
Question 1411 :
Assertion: Tropical regions had got a long evolutionary time for species diversification as compared to temperature regions.
Reason: Temperature regions have undergone frequent glaciations in the past whereas tropical regions have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years.
Question 1413 :
Assertion: Tropical rain forests are disappearing fast from developing countries such as India.
Reason: No value is attached to these forests because these are poor in diversity.
Question 1416 :
Assertion: Genetic variation shown by the plant <i>Rauwolfia vomitoria</i> growing in different Himalayan ranges is very important economically.
Reason: The amount and variety of alkaloids present in this plant, change both between the Rauwolfia species and between the different strains of <i>R. vomitoria.</i>
Question 1418 :
Vehicular standard based on European regulation was first introduced in .......... in India.
Question 1420 :
Find the odd one out for the example of natural air pollutant.
Question 1422 :
Which of the following is not one of the ways to prevent water pollution?
Question 1428 :
Multiple Choice Questions<br/>Biochemical oxygen demand may not be good index for water bodies receiving effluents from.
Question 1429 :
Ozone exists in earth stratosphere and is responsible for protecting humans from harmful _______.
Question 1430 :
When the level of contaminants in air becomes so much that air becomes harmful for living beings, it is called ________.
Question 1431 :
Which layer is considered crucial for the existence of the ecosystems on the planet which is depleting due to increased pollution?<br/>
Question 1432 :
Control of automobile air pollution can be done by all except:
Question 1433 :
Pallavi got PUC certificate for her vehicle which indicates which of the following criteriafor the vehicle?
Question 1434 :
Use of ________ in agricultural activities has grown quite a lot hazardous ammonia gases in the atmosphere.<br/>
Question 1436 : Measurement of the rate of oxygenconsumption in unit volumeof water over a period of time is done to find out<p></p>
Question 1437 :
Measurement of rate of oxygen utilisation by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure
Question 1439 :
Huge quantity of sewage is dumped in a river. The BOD will.
Question 1443 :
Incomplete burning of petrol or diesel in vehicles creates .......... gas which is very poisonous. 
Question 1448 :
Fossil fuel combustion results in release of many pollutants out of which two gases when released into the air combine with water vapour to form acid rain. Name these two gases.
Question 1449 :
Limit of BOD prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters is
Question 1450 :
Which of the option shows following examples in ascending order in terms of BOD?<br/>(i) Distilled water (ii) Tap water(iii) Sewage wastes drained in river<br/>
Question 1453 :
If there was no $CO_2$ in the atmosphere, the earth's temperature would be:
Question 1456 :
When huge amount of CO$_2$ is dumped into a river, the BOD will<br/>
Question 1457 :
Air pollution takes place in two different layers of the earth's atmosphere :_______.
Question 1460 :
Which of the following is/are true regarding international standards of drinking water?<br>
Question 1462 :
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter are advised to use unleaded petrol because
Question 1463 :
Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given.<br>Thepollutants which move downward with Percolating ground water are called
Question 1465 :
Consider the following statements regarding the ecosystem which helps in reducing the level of pollution in the atmosphere.<br/>$1$. Ecosystems and ecological processes play an important role in maintenance of gaseous composition of the atmosphere, breakdown of wastes and removal of pollutants.<br/>$2$. Some ecosystems, especially wetlands have the ability to breaking down and absorb pollutants.<br/>$3$. Natural and artificial wetlands are being used to filter effluents to remove nutrients, heavy metals, suspended solids; reduce the BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) and destroy harmful micro-organisms.<br/>Which of the statements given is/are correct?<br/>
Question 1469 :
Which of the following actions will help to reduce pollution?<br>1.Composting kitchen and garden waste<br>2.Using unleaded petrol in cars<br>3.Spraying pesticides on plants to kill pests<br>4.Littering chocolates and biscuits wrappers
Question 1474 : Read the following about pollution and identify the correct matching combinations.<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>List I<br/></td><td>List II<br/></td><td>List III<br/></td></tr><tr><td>(A) Chernobyl<br/></td><td>Accidental leakage<br/></td><td>Radioactive wastes<br/></td></tr><tr><td>(B) Elnino effect<br/></td><td>Global warming<br/></td><td>Causing climatic change<br/></td></tr><tr><td>(C) Chlorofloro carbons<br/></td><td>Ozone degradation<br/></td><td>Fluorine atoms released<br/></td></tr><tr><td>(D)Snow blindness<br/></td><td>UV-B Radiation<br/></td><td>Inflammation of cornea<br/></td></tr></tbody></table><br/>
Question 1477 : Causes of air pollution are:<br/>i. Exhaust from automobiles<br/>ii. Exhaust from factories and power plant<br/>iii. CFCs<br/>iv. Polythene<p></p><p></p>
Question 1478 :
Two bottles were half filled with water from Ganga ('P') and Kaveri ('Q') and kept under identical airtight conditions for 5 days. The oxygen was determined to be 2% in bottle ('P') and 10% in bottle ('Q'). What could because of this indifference?
Question 1479 :
Relative contributions of CO2, CH4, CFCs and N2O towards global warming are:
Question 1486 :
Assertion: Heavy metals such as cadmium, mercury, nickel etc. are water pollutants.
Reason: Heavy metals are not harmful to humans.
Question 1487 :
For how long and at what temperature an experiment is run to determine the value of BOD of a water body?
Question 1488 :
Nitrogen Oxide is also held responsible for the depletion of Ozone layer, which of the following is source of Nitrogen Oxide?
Question 1489 :
Greenhouse gases trap heat in the atmosphere which makes the Earth warmer. Which of these groups consists of greenhouse gases that cause most harm?
Question 1491 :
A large quantity of urban sewage is drained to a nearby river. Which among the given conditions would happen after mixing of sewage into the river?<br/>(i) BOD of receiving water body increases.<br/>(ii) DO of receiving water body decreases.<br/>(iii) It will not cause mortality among fishes and other aquatic creatures.<br/>(iv) It will lead to nutrient enrichment of receiving water body.<br/>
Question 1495 :
Measurement of rate of oxygen utilisation by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure
Question 1496 :
As the organic matter increases in a water body, the BOD
Question 1499 :
In a sewage plant, BOD is indicated as high. After sometime it shows a decrease then
Question 1500 :
Consider the following statements:<br/>1. Global Warming is a phenomenon in which lower atmosphere traps more terrestrial radiation and thus the mean global temperature of the earth rises beyond $14° \, C$. <br/>2. Global Warming takes place because of rise in the concentration of gases known as greenhouse gases namely-water, vapour, $CO_2, CH_4$, oxides of Nitrogen and man-made gases like $CFCs$.<br/> 3. Among the greenhouse gases, $CO_2$ is primarily responsible for Global Warming. <br/>Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 1501 :
In which one of the following the BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of sewage (s), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order?
Question 1503 : <table class="table table-bordered"><tbody><tr><td> M</td><td> E</td><td> T</td><td> H</td><td> A</td><td> N</td><td> E</td></tr><tr><td> I</td><td> C</td><td> O</td><td> O</td><td> M</td><td> O</td><td> C</td></tr><tr><td> R</td><td> E</td><td> N</td><td> Z</td><td> N</td><td> M</td><td> T</td></tr><tr><td> M</td><td> O</td><td> C</td><td> O</td><td> R</td><td>A </td><td> L</td></tr><tr><td> A</td><td> T</td><td> R</td><td> N</td><td> O</td><td> G</td><td> E</td></tr><tr><td> O</td><td> E</td><td> D</td><td> E</td><td> X</td><td> I</td><td> O</td></tr></tbody></table>Look at the given grid carefully. Which of the following is not given in the grid?
Question 1504 :
Assertion: Amount of biodegradable organic matter present in water is measured by BOD of water.
Reason: During biodegradation of organic compounds, oxygen is released.
Question 1505 :
In a survey conducted in Delhi, on the efforts being made to clear the Km patch in Yamuna, it was observed that the BOD in 2003 was 13 mg/litre while it was 18 mg/litre in 2004. What inference can you draw from the following data?
Question 1506 :
A large quantity of urban sewage is drained into nearby village river. Which among the given conditions would happen after mixing of sewage into the river?<br/>(i) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) of receiving water body increases.<br/>(ii) Dissolved oxygen of receiving water body decreases.<br/>(iii) It will not cause mortality among fishes and other aquatic creatures.<br/>(iv) It will lead to the nutrient enrichment of receiving water body. 
Question 1510 : Study the following lists<br><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td></td><td>List I</td><td></td><td>List II</td></tr><tr><td>A)</td><td>BOD</td><td>I)</td><td>Treatment of sewage</td></tr><tr><td>B)</td><td>KVIC</td><td>II)</td><td>Measure of organic matter in water</td></tr><tr><td>C)</td><td>LAB</td><td>III)</td><td>Biological methods for controlling plant diseases</td></tr><tr><td>D)</td><td>STPS</td><td>IV)</td><td>Increases vitamin $B_{12}$</td></tr><tr><td></td><td></td><td>V)</td><td>Production of biogas</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 1511 :
Assertion: Amount of organic biodegradable compounds present in water is measured by the BOD of that water.
Reason: During bio degradation of biodegradable organic compounds, oxygen is released by bacteria.
Question 1512 :
Which of the followingis a largest source offormaldehyde vapour pollution in a room?
Question 1515 :
At DO below $4$ mg/$l$, water at normal temperature is considered as <br/>
Question 1517 :
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from
Question 1519 :
In which one of the following, the BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) of sewage (S), distillery effluent (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and sugar mill effluent (SE) have been arranged in ascending order
Question 1520 :
Name the gas released from landfills, decaying organic matter under shallow water in marshes and bogs, flooded paddy fields, by ruminant animals and termites, and by the burning of biomass. A molecule of this gas has many times more global warming potential than a molecule of $CO_2$.
Question 1521 : Match the column:<br/><table class="wysiwyg-table"><tbody><tr><td>List I<br/></td><td>List II<br/></td><td>List III<br/></td></tr><tr><td>A) BOD<br/></td><td>i) Supernatant as effluent<br/></td><td>I) Useful aerobic microbes<br/></td></tr><tr><td>B) FLOCS<br/></td><td>ii) Measure of Organic Matter<br/></td><td>II) All settled solids<br/></td></tr><tr><td>C) Primary sludge<br/></td><td>iii) Masses of bacteria associated with fungus<br/></td><td>III) Methane, hydrogen, sulphide, carbon dioxide<br/></td></tr><tr><td>D) Biogas<br/></td><td>iv) Anaerobic sludge digester<br/></td><td>IV) Polluting water has more BOD</td></tr></tbody></table>
Question 1522 :
Arrange according to ascending order of BOD.<br/>(a) Highly polluted pond water<br/>(b) Unpolluted pond water<br/>(c) Distilled water<br/>
Question 1523 :
Limit of B.O.D. prescribed by Central Pollution Control Board for the discharge of industrial and municipal waste waters into natural surface waters, is 
Question 1525 :
Which is the correct ascending arrangement of BOD of sewage(S) distillery effluent(DE), paper mill effluent(PE) and sugar mill effluent(SE)?
Question 1526 :
According to Bharat IV, the emission of carbon monoxide should be
Question 1528 :
Consider the following statements:<br/>1. The Government of India had launched an initiative to study the phenomenon of black carbon, commonly known as soot. <br/>2. Black carbon is a form of particulate air pollution, produced from incomplete combustion of biomass burning, cooking with solid fuels and diesel exhaust. <br/>3. The National Black Carbon Programme is the joint effort of the Ministry of Environment, Earth Sciences, Science end Technology and ISRO. <br/>Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Question 1532 :
Which of the following is the largest landfill in the world?
