Page 3 : JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , •, , Corporate Office : 45, 2nd Floor, Maharishi Dayanand Marg,, , Corner Market,, Malviya Nagar, New Delhi-110017, Tel. : 011-49842349 / 49842350, Typeset by Disha DTP Team, , DISHA PUBLICATION, ALL RIGHTS RESERVED, © Copyright Publisher, No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form without, prior permission of the publisher. The author and the publisher do not, take any legal responsibility for any errors or misrepresentations that, might have crept in. We have tried and made our best efforts to, provide accurate up-to-date information in this book., For further information about the books from DISHA,, Log on to www.dishapublication.com or email to,
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , INDIAN, POLITY, 1., , Constitutional Provisions, , •, , Making of Constitution: Its, Development & Constituent, Assembly, , •, , Basic Features of, Constitution & Sources, , •, , Parts, Articles, Chapters &, Schedules, , •, , The Preamble, , •, , Union & Its Territories, , •, , Citizenship, , •, , Fundamental Rights, , •, , Directive Principle of State, Policies, , •, , Emergency Provisions, , •, , Centre State Relations,, Uniform Civil Code, Article, , C -1 – C-132, 1 - 43
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 370, etc., 2., , Constitutional Bodies, , •, , Election Commission, , •, , Comptroller & Auditor, , 44 - 54, , General(CAG), •, , Union Public Service, Commission & SPSC, , •, , Finance Commission, , •, , Other Commissions &, Miscellaneous, , •, , Attorney General & Advocate, General, , 3., , Union Government, , •, , Union Legislature, , •, , Union Executive, , •, , Union Judiciary, , 4., , State & Union Territory, Government, , •, , State Legislature, , 55 - 95, , 96 - 105
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , •, , State Executive, , •, , State Judiciary, , 5., , Local Government, , •, , Panchayati Raj, , •, , Urban Local Governments, , 6., , Important Bodies: Lok Pal/ 116 - 118, , 106 - 115, , Lokayukta, NDC, NITI Ayog, & NHRC, 7., , Elections : Electoral, System & Its Reform, , 8., , Political Parties & Pressure 122 - 123, Groups/Civil Society, , 9., , Political Theory & World, Polity/Miscellaneous, , 124-132
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Making of Constitution: Its Development & Constituent, Assembly, 1., (a), (b), (c), (d), 2., (a), (b), (c), (d), 3., (a), (b), (c), (d), 4., (a), (b), (c), (d), , Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the, Constituent Assembly?, J.L. Nehru, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M.Munshi, How many members of the constituent assembly signed the, Constitution of India?, 284, 294, 274, 244, The permanent president of Constituent Assembly was, Dr. Ambedkar, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, K.M. munshi, J.L. Nehru, Who among the following was a non-congress member of the, Constituent Assembly?, J.B. Kripalani, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, K.M. Munshi, T.T. Krishnamachari
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 5., (a), (b), (c), (d), 6., (a), (b), (c), (d), 7., (a), (b), (c), 8., (a), (b), (c), (d), 9., (a), (b), (c), (d), 10., (a), (b), (c), (d), , How many members were assigned by Cabinet Mission in, Constituent Assembly?, 300, 309, 450, 296, What was the duration in the making of Indian Constitution?, 1 Year 10 Months and 12 Days, 2 Years 10 Months and 5 Days, 2 Years 11 Months and 18 Days, 3 Years 6 Months and 7 Days, Which of the following gave the idea of Constituent Assembly for, India?, Simon Commission, Rajaji Formula, Cabinet Mission Plan, (d) Wavell Plan, The Constitution of India was enacted on 26 November 1949 by, the, Constituent Assembly, Parliament of India, President of India, British Parliament, When did the Indian Constituent Assembly meet for the first, time?, 26 Jan, 1950, 15Aug, 1947, 9 Dec, 1946, 19 Nov, 1949, The Constitution of India was completed by which of the, following dates :, Jan 26, 1950, Nov 26, 1949, Feb 11, 1948, None of above
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 11., (a), (b), (c), (d), 12., (a), (b), (c), (d), 13., (a), (b), (c), (d), 14., (a), (b), (c), (d), 15., (a), (b), (c), (d), 16., 1., 2., , The proposal for framing of the Constitution of India by an, elected Constituent Assembly was made by, Simon Commissions, Government of India Act, 1935, Cripps Mission, British cabinet Delegation, Who of the following has stated that ‘The Constitution has not, been set in a right mould of Federalism’?, D.D. Basu, K.M. Munshi, B.R. Ambedkar, A.K. Iyer, Who of the following moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the, Constituent Assembly?, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, P. J.L Nehru, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Dr. C.D. Deshmukh, The number of members included in the Constitution Drafting, Committee was:, Seven, Nine, Eleven, Thirteen, Draft of Indian Constitution was prepared by–, Sir B. N. Rao, “Advisor to the Constituent Assembly, Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer Chairman Constitution Draft, Committee, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Union Law Minister, Jawahar Lal Nehru, Prime Minister, Consider the following statements regarding the composition of, the Constituent Assembly:, The representatives were to be elected from the four constituents, – Hindu, Muslim, Sikh and Christian., The chairman of the Union Constitution Committee was Sardar, Vallabhbhai Patel.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., 4., , The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was 389., The Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R., Ambedkar consisted of eight members., Which of these is/are correct?, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 3 only, (d) 1 only, 17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, List-I, List-II, (Constituent AssemblyCommittee) (Chairman), A., , Steering Committee, , 1., , Sardar Vallabhbai, Patel, , B., , Fundamental Rights SubCommittee, , 2., , Dr. Rajendra Prasad, , C., , Union Constitution Committee, , 3., , J.B. Kripalani, , D., , Provincial Constitution, Committee, , 4., , Jawaharlal Nehru, , Codes:, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 2, , 3, , 4, , 1, , (b), , 1, , 4, , 3, , 2, , (c), , 2, , 4, , 3, , 1, , (d), 1, 3, 4, 2, 18. Consider the following statements:, 1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the Provisional, President of the Constituent Assembly., 2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of the, Constituent Assembly., (a) 1 only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 19., , 2 only, Both 1 and 2, Neither 1 nor 2, Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using, the codes given below., List - I, , List - II, , A., , First Vice-president of, Constituent Assembly, , 1., , V. T. Krishnamachari, , B., , Originally the only Congress, Member of Draft Committee, , 2., , Jawaharlal Nehru, , C., , Member of Constitutent, Assembly representing, Rajasthan’s Princely States, , 3., , K. M. Munshi, , D., , Chairman of Union, Constitution Committee, , 4., , H. C. Mukherjee, , Codes:, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 1, , 4, , 2, , 3, , (b), , 4, , 3, , 1, , 2, , (c), , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , (d), , 3, , 4, , 1, , 2, , 20. Consider the following statements about the judicial system, introduced by the British in India:, 1. It judicially unified India., 2. The British established a new system of law through the process, of enactment and relevant interpretation of customary laws., 3. In general the British tended to avoid the customary laws of, India., Which of the Statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 21. Which of the following statements about the formation of the, Constituent Assembly is / are correct?, (CDS 2015-II), 1. The members of the Constituent Assembly were chosen on the, basis of the provincial elections of 1946., 2. The Constituent Assembly did not include representatives of the, Princely States., 3. The discussions within the Constituent Assembly were not, influenced by opinions expressed by the public., 4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, submissions, were solicited from the public., Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1 only, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 1 and 4, 22. The Constituent Assembly of India convened to prepare the, Constitution of India appointed a sub-committee headed by, Gopinath Bordoloi., [NDA 2013-I], Which of the following recommendations was/were made by the, committee?, 1. Fifth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and, Excluded Areas., 2. Constitution of District Councils in all autonomous districts of, Asom., 3. Sixth Schedule for the North-East Frontier (Asom) Tribal and, Excluded Areas., 4. Demarcation of territories in North-East India., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) Only 4, 23. Match the following, [NDA 2014-I]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , List I, (Person), , List II, (Role in making, Constitution of India), , A., , Rajendra Prasad, , 1., , Member, Committee, , B., , T T Krishanamachari, , 2., , Chairman, Assembly, , C., , H C Mukherjee, , 3., , Chairman, Committee, , D., , B R Ambedkar, , 4., , Vice, Chairman, Constituent Assembly, , of, , the, , Drafting, Constituent, Drafting, , Codes:, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 2, , 1, , 4, , 3, , (b), , 2, , 4, , 1, , 3, , (c), , 3, , 4, , 1, , 2, , (d) 3 1 4 2, 24. ‘The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for, the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install, any particular party in power as has been done in some, countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by, the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of, democracy’., [2014-I], The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed, to, (a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, (b) Dr B R Ambedkar, (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, (d) Acharya J B Kriplani, 25. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting, Committee of the Constitution of India?, [NDA/NA 2014-II]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 26., , B. R. Ambedkar, K. M. Munshi, Krishnaswamy Iyer, M. K Gandhi, Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the, Constitution and state which of them are correct with the help of, given codes :, [UP-PCS 2009], 1. The objective resolution proposed by Pt. Nehru ultimately, became the Preamble., 2. It is not justiciable in nature., 3. It cannot be amended., 4. It cannot override the specific provisions of the Constitution., Codes:, (a) Only 1 and 2, (b) Only 1, 2 and 4, (c) Only 1, 2 and 3, (d) Only 2, 3 and 4, 27. The Preamble of the Indian constitution adopted on 26th, November 1949 did not include the terms :, [UP-PCS 2009], 1. Socialist, 2. Secular, 3. Integrity, 4. Republic, Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) 3 and 4, 28. Who among the following were the members of the drafting, committee of the Constitution?, [UP-PCS 2014], (a) Vallabhbhai Patel, (b) Jawaharlal Nehru, (c) Alladi Krishnaswami Aiyar, (d) Sardar Patel
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 29. Assertion (a) : The Constitution of India has become the, longest one., [UP-PCS 2015], Reason (R) : The Chapter on Fundamental Rights has been, borrowed from the model of American Constitution., Choose the correct answer using the code given below :, Codes :, (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of, (a), (b) Both (a) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct, explanation of (a), (c) (a) is true, but (R) is false, (d) (a) is false, but (R) is true, 30. The idea of preamble has been borrowed in Indian Constitution, from the Constitution of, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Italy, (b) Canada, (c) France, (d) U. S. A., 31. Who among the following was not a member of the Drafting, committee of the Constitution of India?, (a) B. R. Ambedkar, (b) K. M. Munshi, (c) M. K. Gandhi, (d) Krishnaswamy Iyer, , Basic Features of Constitution & Sources, 32., (a), (b), (c), (d), 33., , In the Constitution of India, the term ‘federal’ appears in, The Preamble, Part III of the Constitution, Article 368, None of the above, Indian federal structure is inspired by which model of the, countries given below?, (a) USA, (b) Canada, (c) Switzerland
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Russia, 34. India has borrowed the concept of Fundamental Rights from the, Constitution of, (a) UK, (b) USA, (c) Russia, (d) Ireland, 35. The phrase equality before law used in Article 14 of Indian, Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of, (a) Britain, (b) USA, (c) France, (d) Canada, 36. The source of the basic structure theory of the Constitution of, India is, (a) the Constitution, (b) opinion of jurists, (c) indicial interpretation, (d) parliamentary statutes, 37. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution, ?, (a) Written constitution, (b) Federalism, (c) Sovereignty of Parliament, (d) Judicial Review, 38. Indian Constitution is :, (a) Federal, (b) Unitary, (c) Quasi-federal, (d) Presidential, 39. Which one of the following is not a part of the ‘basic structure’ of, the Indian Constitution ?, (a) Rule of law, (b) Secularism, (c) Republican form of government, (d) Parliamentary form of government
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 40., (a), (b), (c), (d), 41., (a), (b), (c), (d), 42., (a), (b), (c), (d), 43., (a), (b), (c), (d), 44., 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., (c), (d), , Indian Constitution is, Rigid, Flexible, Neither rigid nor flexible, Partly rigid and partly flexible, The idea of concurrent list in the Indian Constitution has been, borrowed from, USA, Switzerland, Australia, U.S.S.R., The idea of the Directive Principles of state policy in the Indian, Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of, Ireland, Canada, South Africa, Australia, The federal system of India was inspired by the Constitution of, the following?, Canada, United Kingdom, U.S.A., Ireland, Which of the following are the correct matching of the countries, and the borrowed features of the Indian constitution from them?, UK - Bicameral Parliament, USSR - Independence of Judiciary and judicial review, Australia - Five year Plan, US - Language of the preamble, Japan - Law on which the Supreme Court function, Ireland - Method of election of President, (a) 1, 3 and 5, (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 1, 5 and 6, 2, 3, 5 and 6
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 45. Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India, is/are correct?, 1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are the basic features of, the Constitution., 2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of powers between the, Centre and the States is concerned, is rigid., 3. The Constitution recognises the interdependence of civil and, economic rights., 4. The Constitution mentions direct control by the people such as, referendum, initiative and recall., Select the correct answer from the codes given below:, (a) Only 1, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 46. Consider the following statements:, The Indian Constitution is:, 1. an unwritten constitution., 2. a written constitution., 3. largely based on the Government of India Act, 1935., 4. a gift of British Parliament., Of these statements:, (a) 2 and 4 are correct, (b) 2 and 3 are correct, (c) 1 and 4 are correct, (d) 1 and 3 are correct, 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, List-I, List-II, (Provisions in the Constitution (Source), of India), A., , Emergency Provisions, , 1., , Ireland, , B., , Fundamental Rights, , 2., , The United Kingdom, , C., , Parliamentary System, , 3., , The United States of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , America, D., , Directive Principles of, State Policy, , 4., , Germany, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 4, 1, 2, 3, (b) 2, 3, 4, 1, (c) 4, 3, 2, 1, (d) 2, 1, 4, 3, 48. Consider the following statements:, The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for:, 1. Single citizenship for the whole of India., 2. Strictly federal form of government., 3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility., Of the above statements:, (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, (b) 1 and 2 are correct, (c) 2 and 3 are correct, (d) 1 and 3 are correct, 49. Which of the following are considered as parts of the basic, structure of the Indian Constitution ? [NDA - 2017], 1. Republication and democratic form of Government, 2. Secular character of the Constitution, 3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of, State Policy, 4. Federal character of the Constitution, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2 and 4, 50. Which of the following features of the Indian Government, system are the essential features of the parliamentary, Government system?, [CDS - 2017], 1. Presence of nominal and real executives
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2. Membership of the ministers in the legislature, 3. Separation of powers between the Union and State government, 4. Independent judiciary system, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 51. Which of following federal principles are not found in Indian, federation ?, 1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and State, Governments, 2. Equality of representation of the states in the upper house of the, Federal Legislature, 3. The Union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the, Union at its will, 4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the Indian Union by, forming new States, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1 and 2, (d) 3 and 4, 52. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion(a) : K.C. Wheare calls Indian Constitution a quasifederal Constitution., Reason (R) : There are three lists (Union, State and, Concurrent) in the Seventh Schedule of the, Constitution of India dividing powers between the, Centre and the state and giving residuary powers, to the central government., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 53. Consider the following statements in regard to ‘equality before, law’ introduced by the British in India., 1. There were similar courts for Indians and Europeans., 2. Justice now became costlier than before., 3. The government officials often favoured the rich., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 54. Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the, Constitution of India?, (CDS 2015-II), 1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, 2. Gives official status to certain religions, 3. Provides freedom to profess any religion, 4. Ensures equality of all citizens within religious communities, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 3 and 4 only, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 2 only, 55., , Match the following, , [NDA 2009-I]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 1, 2, 4, 3, (b) 3, 4, 1, 2, (c) 1, 4, 2, 3, (d) 3, 7, 4, 2, 56. Which of the following features is/are contrary to the norms of a, federal polity?, [NDA 2011-I], 1. Common All India Service, 2. Single integrated judiciary, Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 57. Which among the following features of a federal system is not, found in the Indian Political System ? [NDA 2015-I], (a) Dual citizenship, (b) Distribution of powers between the Federal and the State, Governments, (c) Supremacy of the Constitution, (d) Authority of the Courts to interpret the Constitution
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 58. Consider the following statements about the Constitution of, India:, [NDA/NA 2016-II], 1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom of speech in the, Parliament as a Parliamentary privilege protected by the, Constitution of India ., 2. The Constitution has vested the power to armed the, Constitution in the Parliament, Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 59. Which among the following is not a basic feature of the, Constitution of India ?, [NDA/NA 2015-I], (a) Fundamental rights, (b) Independence of judiciary, (c) Federalism, (d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of, the Constitution, 60. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a, federal system?, [NDA/NA 2014-I], (a) There are two distinct levels of government, (b) The responsibilities and powers of each level of government are, clearly defined in a written Constitution, (c) There is no separation of powers between the legislative and, executive branches of government, (d) A Supreme Court is entrusted with the responsibility of, interpreting these provisions and arbitrating in matters of, dispute, 61. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the, ‘Soul’ of the constitution?, [UP-PCS 2008], (a) Fundamental rights, (b) Directive Principles of State Policy, (c) The Preamble, (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 62. ‘Right to Equality’ finds a place in the Constitution under, [UP-PCS 2009], 1. Art. 13, 2. Art. 14, 3. Art. 15, 4. Art. 16, Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, Codes:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) All the four, 63. India has adopted a federation of .............. type., (a) USA, (b) Canadian, (c) Australian, (d) Switzerland, , Parts, Articles, Chapters & Schedules, 64. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for uniform civil, code for the citizens?, (a) Article 42, (b) Article 44, (c) Article 46, (d) Article 48, 65. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the ‘Right to, Constitutional Remedies’?, (a) Article 19, (b) Article 14, (c) Article 21, (d) Article 32, 66. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with centre-state, financial relations?, (a) Part XV, (b) Part XIV, (c) Part XII
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Part X, 67. Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the financial, provisions?, (a) Article 352, (b) Article 356, (c) Article 360, (d) Article 361, 68. In which schedule of the Indian Constitution powers of, panchayats are stated?, (a) 8th schedule, (b) 9th schedule, (c) 10th schedule, (d) 11th schedule, 69. Which of the following articles of the Indian constitution deals, with citizenship in India?, (a) Article 333 to 337, (b) Article 17 to 20, (c) Article 05 to 11, (d) Article 01 to 04, 70. Under which article the parliament provides financial assistance, to states?, (a) Article 273, (b) Article 274, (c) Article 275, (d) Article 276, 71. Which of the following schedules deals with the division of, powers between union and states?, (a) fourth schedule, (b) sixth schedule, (c) seventh schedule, (d) ninth schedule, 72. Under which article the president of India can be removed by, the process of impeachment?, (a) Article 79, (b) Article 76, (c) Article 57
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Article 61, 73. Under which of the constitutional provision, the Supreme Court, of India extends advice to the president of India?, (a) Article 141, (b) Article 142, (c) Article 143, (d) Article 144, 74. Under which article the parliament of India can legislate on any, subject in the state list in national interest?, (a) Article 229, (b) Article 230, (c) Article 247, (d) Article 249, 75. Under which article the Parliament of India may constitute, Administrative Tribunal ?, (a) 323 A, (b) 323B, (c) 324, (d) 325, 76. Which of the following articles deals with the impeachment, process against the president of India?, (a) Article 58, (b) Article 59, (c) Article 60, (d) Article 61, 77. Which Article of Indian Constitution is related with the Protection, of the interests of the minorities?, (a) Article 17, (b) Article 29, (c) Article 30, (d) Article 31, 78. Which schedule of Indian Constitution is related to Panchayti, Raj ?, (a) II Schedule, (b) VIII Schedule, (c) X Schedule
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) XI Schedule, 79 Which of the following schedules of Indian Constitution is, related with the allotment of seats in Rajya Sabha ?, (a) Third Schedule, (b) Fourth Schedule, (c) Fifth Schedule, (d) Sixth Schedule, 80. The provision for Constitution of Legislatures in states is, enshrined in which article of the Indian Constitution ?, (a) Article 168, (b) Article 174, (c) Article 197, (d) Article 153, 81. The idea of organization of panchayats as a duty of state is, mentioned in which part of Indian Constitution?, (a) Chaper I, (b) Chapter II, (c) Chapter III, (d) Chapter IV, 82. Which article of the constitution allows the centre to form new, states ?, (a) Article 3, (b) Article 4, (c) Article 5, (d) Article 6, 83. The provision of the sixth schedule shall not apply in which one, of the following states?, (a) Meghalaya, (b) Tripura, (c) Mizoram, (d) Goa, 84. How many subjects are kept under the jurisdiction of, panchayats in the eleven schedule of the Constitution?, (a) 27, (b) 28, (c) 29
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 30, 85. Which article of Indian Constitution deals with amendment, procedure ?, (a) Article 268, (b) Article 352, (c) Article 356, (d) Article 368, 86. In which part of the Indian Constitution, legislative relation, between centre and state is given?, (a) X, (b) XI, (c) XII, (d) XIII, 87. The Indian Constitution is divided into, (a) 16 chapters, (b) 22 chapters, (c) 24 chapters, (d) 25 chapters, 88. Which article provides that any law passed in violation of, fundamental rights is void to the extent of such violation, (a) Article 12, (b) Article 14, (c) Article 13, (d) Article 18, 89. Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is associated with the, functions of, (a) The concurrent list, (b) The state list, (c) The president, (d) The union list, 90. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution enunciates, fundamental duties?, [CDS-2017], (a) Article 35, (b) Article 51(a), (c) Article 32, (d) Article 14
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 91. The term ‘state’ has been defined in which of the following, articles of Indian Constitution ?, (a) Article 1, (b) Article 8, (c) Article 10, (d) Article 12, 92. Under which article of Indian Constitution, a High Court can, issue writs to protect the fundamental rights?, (a) Article 15, (b) Article 32, (c) Article 35, (d) Article 226, 93. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution empowers, the Governor to issue ordinances during recess of the state, legislature?, (a) Article 210, (b) Article 211, (c) Article 213, (d) Article 214, 94. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned in which of, the following articles of Indian Constitution?, (a) Article 131, (b) Article 132, (c) Article 143, (d) Article 148, 95. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers parliament to, legislate on a subject of the state list ?, (a) Article 115, (b) Article 116, (c) Article 226, (d) Article 249, 96. Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution empowers, the president to appoint Comptroller and Auditor General of, India ?, (a) Article 147, (b) Article 148
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Article 149, (d) Article 151, 97. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the, [NDA-2017], (a) Freedom of consciences, (b) Right to propagate religion, (c) Right of minorities to establish and manage educational, institution, (d) Cultural and educational rights of the majority community, 98. Which article of Indian Constitution declares Devnagri Hindi as, an official language of India?, (a) Article 343, (b) Article 348, (c) Article 154, (d) Article 156, 99. Money bill has been defined in, (a) Article 110, (b) Article 111, (c) Article 112, (d) Artcle 113, 100. Which article of the Constitution laid down that state shall take, steps to organize village panchayats?, (a) Article 36, (b) Article 73, (c) Article 24, (d) Article 40, 101. Under which article of Indian Constitution, President of India, enjoys powers to withhold his asset on any Bill?, (a) Article 63, (b) Article 108, (c) Article 109, (d) Article 111, 102. Under which article of the Indian Constitution the adjudication of, disputes relativity to water of inter-state rivers-valleys is done ?, (a) Article 260, (b) Article 261
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Article 262, (d) Article 262, 103. Which part of the Constitution envisages a three tier system of, panchayats ?, [CDS-2016], (a) Part IV, (b) Part X, (c) Part XI, (d) Part XII, 104. Which one of the following articles of the Indian Constitution, provides for All India Services ?, (a) Article 310, (b) Article 311, (c) Article 312, (d) Article 314, 105. Which article of the Indian Constitution empowers the president, to consult the Supreme Court?, (a) Article 129, (b) Article 132, (c) Article 143, (d) Article 32, 106. Which of the following articles of the Constitution vests the, executive power of the Union in the President?, (a) Article 51, (b) Article 52, (c) Article 53, (c) Article 54, 107. The Constitution of India provides for an Election Commission, under Article, (a) 321, (b) 322, (c) 323, (d) 324, 108. Procedure for creation of Legislative Council in states has been, described in which article of the Constitution?, (a) Article 368, (b) Article 69
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Article 269, (d) Article 169, 109. Which of the Constitution provisions lays down that taxes can, neither be carried nor collected without the authority of law?, (a) Article 265, (b) Article 266, (c) Article 300, (d) Article 368, 110. The fundamental duties are mentioned in the following part of, the Constitution of India, (a) Part III, (b) Part IV, (c) Part IV A, (d) Part VI, 111. The forms of oaths or affirmations for which of the following, officials are mentioned in the third schedule of the Indian, constitution?, 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General, 2. The Chief Election Commissioner, 3. The Chief Justice of a High Court, 4. The Attorney General, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 2, 3 and 4 only, (d) 1 and 3 only, 112. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of, the following schedules of the constitution must be amended?, (a) First, (b) Second, (c) Third, (d) Fifth, 113. Which of the following statements correctly describes the fourth, schedule of the Constitution of India?, (a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the, States.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) It contains the language listed in the constitution., (c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal, areas., (d) It allocates seats in the council of states., 114. The ninth schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by?, (a) First amendment, (b) Eighth amendment, (c) Ninth amendment, (d) Forty second amendment, 115. Which of the following list 1 with list II and select the correct, answer using the codes given below the list:, List I, (Article of the Constitution), , List II, (Content), , A., , Article 54, , 1., , Election of the president, of India, , B., , Article 75, , 2., , Appointment of the P.M., and council of ministers, , C., , Article 155, , 3., , Appointment of the, governor of state, , D., , Article 164, , 4., , Appointment of the C.M., and council of Ministers, of a state, , 5., , Composition of, Legislative Assemblies, , Codes:, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , (b), , 1, , 2, , 4, , 5, , (c), , 2, , 1, , 3, , 5, , (d), , 2, , 1, , 4, , 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 116. In the Indian Constitution, the right to equality is granted by, following Articles. They are:, (a) Article 16 to Article 20, (b) Article 15 to Article 19, (c) Article 14 to Article 18, (d) Article 13 to Article 17, 117. Given below are 4 schedules with their amendment mode and, what they contain., No., , Schedule, , Added by, , Particulars, , 1., , Ninth, , Ist amendment in, 1951, , Contains acts & orders, related to land tenure, land, tax, railways, industries, , 2., , Tenth, , 52nd amendment, in 1984, , Contains provisions of, disqualification of grounds, of defection, , 3., , Eleventh, , 73rd amendment, in 1990, , Contains provisions of, Municipal Corporation, , 4., , Twelfth, , 74th amendment, in 1992, , Contains provisions of, Panchayati Raj., , Which of the following are correct about the 4 schedules?, (a) 1, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 1 only, 118. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, [NDA-2017], List-I, (Subject), , List-II, (Part of the, Constitution of India), , A., , Finance, Property, Contracts and, Suits, , 1., , Part V, , B., , The Union Judiciary, , 2., , Part XII
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , C., , The Executive of States, , 3., , Part XI, , D., , Relations between the Union and, 4., Part VI, the States, Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 4, 3, 2, 1, (b) 2, 1, 4, 3, (c) 4, 1, 2, 3, (d) 2, 3, 4, 1, 119. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?, (a), , Languages, , :, , Eighth Schedule, , (b), , The forms of oaths or, affirmations, , :, , Second Schedule, , (c), , Allocation of seats in the, Council of States, , :, , Fourth Schedule, , (d), , Provisions as to, :, Tenth Schedule, disqualification on the, ground of defection, 120. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, List-I, (Schedule of the, Constitution of India), , List-II, (Content), , A., , Ninth Schedule, , 1., , Provisions regarding, Panchayati Raj Institutions, , B., , Tenth Schedule, , 2., , Provisions regarding land, reforms legislations, , C., , Eleventh Schedule, , 3., , Provisions regarding, administration of tribal areas, , D., , Sixth Schedule, , 4., , Provisions regarding the
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , distribution of powers, between the Centre and, States, 5., , Provisions regarding the, disqualification on ground of, defection, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 3, 1, 4, 2, (b) 2, 5, 1, 3, (c) 3, 5, 1, 2, (d) 2, 1, 4, 3, 121. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the, Constitution:, 1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session, of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses., 2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a, Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368., 3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more, than half of the State legislature is essential., 4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in, the House of the People., Which of these are correct ?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 122. Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India makes special, administrative provisions in regard to the tribal areas in :, (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, (b) Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland and Manipur, (c) Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya, (d) Arunanchal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and Tripura
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 123. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, (Provisions), , List-II, (Articles), , A., , Prohibition of discrimination on 1., grounds of religion, race, caste,, sex, place of birth, , Article 22, , B., , Prohibition of employment of, children in factories, , 2., , Article 15, , C., , Protection against arrest and, detention in certain cases, , 3., , Article 24, , D., , Abolition of untouchability, , 4., , Article 17, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 1, 4, 2, 3, (b) 2, 3, 1, 4, (c) 2, 4, 1, 3, (d) 1, 3, 2, 4, 124. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, , A., B., C., D., , List-I, (Article), Article 39-A, Article 43, Article 44, Article 50, , Codes :, A, (a) 1, (b) 4, (c) 4, , B, 4, 1, 1, , 1., 2., 3., 4., C, 2, 3, 2, , D, 3, 2, 3, , List-II, (Matter Dealt With), Living wage for workers, Uniform civil code, Separation of judiciary, Free Legal aid
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 1, 4, 3, 2, 125. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, (Article), A. Article 50, , List-II, (Subject), 1. Impeachment of the President, , B., , Article 143, , 2., , C., , Article 61, , 3., , D., , Article 320, , 4., , Separation between judiciary and, executive, Functions of Public Service, Commissions, Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme, Court, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 2, 4, 1, 3, (b) 3, 1, 4, 2, (c) 2, 1, 4, 3, (d) 3, 4, 1, 2, 126. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, (Matter), , List-II, (Article), , A., , Right to Equality, , 1., , Article 14, , B., , Right to Freedom, , 2., , Article 25, , C., , Right to Freedom of, Religion, , 3., , Article 32, , D., , Right to Constitutional, Remedies, , 4., , Article 19, , 5., , Article 13, , Codes :, A, , B, , C, , D
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) 1, 3, 2, 4, (b) 2, 4, 5, 3, (c) 1, 4, 2, 3, (d) 2, 3, 5, 4, 127. Consider the following statements :, 1. The Eleventh Schedule was inserted in the Constitution of India, by the Constitution (Seventy Third Amendment) Act, 1992., 2. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India corresponds, to Article 243-W of the Constitution of India., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 128. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, (Subject), , List-II, (Article of the Constitution, of India), , A. Annual Financial Statement 1., or Budget, , Article 110, , B. Supplementary, additional, or excess grants, , 2., , Article 112, , C. Appropriation Bill, , 3., , Article 114, , D. Definition of ‘Money Bill’, , 4., , Article 115, , Codes :, A, (a) 2, (b) 1, (c) 2, (d) 1, , B, 3, 4, 4, 3, , C, 4, 3, 3, 4, , D, 1, 2, 1, 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 129. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, (Bodies), , List-II, (Articles), , A. Finance Commission, , 1., , Article 148, , B. Union Public Service, Commission, , 2., , Article 280, , C. Election Commission, , 3., , Article 315, , D. Comptroller and AuditorGeneral of India, , 4., , Article 324, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 4, 1, 2, 3, (b) 2, 3, 4, 1, (c) 4, 3, 2, 1, (d) 2, 1, 4, 3, 130. The idea of organization of Panchayats as a duty of state is, mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?, [CDS-2017], (a) Chapter I, (b) Chapter II, (c) Chapter III, (d) Chapter IV, 131. The entry “Public health and Sanitation” is included in the, Constitution of India in, (a) Union List, (b) State List, (c) Concurrent List, (d) None of these, 132. Which of the following are correctly matched?, 1. Article 164 - Appointment of Chief Minister in the State, Legislature
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., 3., , Article 222- Transfer of High Court Judges, Article 11- Power of the Parliament to make laws with regard to, citizenship, (a) Only 1, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 133. Which of the following is incorrect regarding schedule VI of our, Constitution?, (a) The areas are administered as Autonomous districts over which, the executive authority of the states extends, (b) The Government has the power to create new autonomous, districts, (c) The autonomous districts are provided with elected bodies, known as district councils, (d) It deals with the administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal, Pradesh, Manipur and Nagaland, 134. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, code given below:, List - I, (Article of Constitution), , List - II, (Provision), , A., , 215, , 1., , Transfer of one Judge from one, High Court to another, , B., , 222, , 2., , Powers of superintendence over, all courts by the High Court, , C., , 226, , 3., , Power of High Court to issue, certain writs., , D., 227, Codes:, A, (a) 4, (b) 2, (c) 1, , 4., , High Court to be court of Record, , B, 1, 1, 4, , C, 3, 3, 3, , D, 2, 4, 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 4, 2, 3, 1, 135. Which one of the following language is not recognized in the, Eighth Sehedule to the Constitution of India, (CDS 2016-I), (a) English, (b) Sanskrit, (c) Urdu, (d) Nepali, 136. Which one of the following Articles Schedules in the, Constitution of India deals with Autonomous District, Councils?, (CDS 2016-I), 1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article, (a) Eighth Schedule, (b) Article 370, (c) Sixth Schedule, (d) Article 250, 137. Which of the following is/are not central feature(s) of Article 343, of the Constitution of India? (CDS 2015-II), 1. Hindi in Devanagari Script shall be the national language of the, Union., 2. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari, Script., 3. English language shall continue to be used for official purposes, within States., 4. If two or more States agree, Hindi language should be the official, language of communication between the States., Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1, 3 and 4, (b) 2 and 4 only, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 2 only, 138. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of, India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of, defection?, [NDA 2007-II], (a) 8th Schedule, (b) 7th Schedule
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) 6th Schedule, (d) 10th Schedule, 139. Which schedule of the Constitution of India contains the three, lists that divide powers between the Union and the, sates?, [NDA 2008-I], (a) Fifth, (b) Sixth, (c) Seventh, (d) Eigth, 140. Match the following, [NDA 2008-I], List-I, (Schedule in the Constitution of, India), , List-II, (Subject), , (a), , Tenth Schedule, , 1., , Languages, , (b), , Eighth Schedule, , 2., , Provisions as to, disqualification on the, grounds of defection, , (c), , First Schedule, , 3., , Validation of certain, Acts and Regulations, , 4., , The States, , (d), , Ninth Schedule, Codes:, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , (b), , 2, , 1, , 4, , 3, , (c), , 4, , 1, , 2, , 3, , (d), 2, 3, 4, 1, 141. Consider the following statements [NDA 2008-II], 1. Article 46 of the Constitution of India provides for free legal aid to, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes., 2. Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides for equality before, law.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 142. According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three, States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who, may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled, Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following, States is not covered by the Article?, [NDA 2009-I], (a) Jharkhand, (b) Punjab, (c) Madhya Pradesh, (d) Odisha, 143. Which of the following statements is/are correct?, Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the, Governor of a state may [NDA 2012-I], 1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature., 2. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration, of the President., 3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the, legislature., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 2 and 3, (d) All of the above, 144. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the, Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India ?, [NDA 2015-I], 1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951., 2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial, review., 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 4., , The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain, to the matters of national security., Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 3 only, 145. Which of the following is not true of Article 32 of the Indian, Constitution ?, [NDA 2015-I], (a) It gives the Supreme Court and the High Courts the power to, issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights., (b) It is included in Part III of the Indian Constitution and is therefore, itself a Fundamental Right., (c) Dr. Ambedkar called it the ‘very soul of the Indian Constitution’., (d) An aggrieved person has no right to complain under Article 32, where a Fundamental Right has not been violated., 146. The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains, provisions for the administration of Tribal areas. Which of the, following States is not covered under this Schedule ?, [NDA 2015-I], (a) Assam, (b) Manipur, (c) Meghalaya, (d) Tripura, 147. Which one of the following pairs of the Schedule in the, Constitution of India and its Content is not correctly, matched?, [NDA/NA 2016-I], Schedule, Content, (a) Eighth Schedule, :, Languages, (b) Second Schedule, :, The forms of oaths and, affirmations, (c) Fourth Schedule, :, Allocation of seats in the, Council of States, (d) Tenth Schedule, :, Provisions as to, disquialification on the ground
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , of defection, 148. The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly, express the power of Judicial review are:, [NDA/NA 2015-II], (a) Article 21 and Article 446, (b) Article 32 and Article 226, (c) Article 44 and Article 152, (d) Article 17 and Article 143, 149. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:, [NDA/NA 2015-II], (a) provisions related to the administration of tribal areas., (b) allocation of seats in the Council of States., (c) the Union List, The State List and the Concurrent List., (d) recognized languages of the Union of India., 150. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains, [NDA/NA 2015-I], (a) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas, (b) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List, (c) a list of recognized languages, (d) provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures, on grounds of defection, 151. Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with, [NDA/NA 2015-I], (a) the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution, (b) financial emergency, (c) reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, in the Lok Sabha, (d) Official Language of the Union of India, 152. Under which Article of Indian Constitution, President of India, enjoys power to withhold his assent on any Bill?, [UP-PCS 2008], (a) Article 63, (b) Article 108, (c) Article 109, (d) Article 111
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 153., , Which one of the following pairs about the subject and the, respective list under the Constitution of India is not correctly, matched?, [UP-PCS 2009], Subject, , List, , (a), , Forests, , –, , Concurrent List, , (b), , Stock Exchange, , –, , Concurrent List, , (c), , Post Office, , –, , Union List Saving, Bank, , (d), 154., , Public Health, –, State List, Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, code given below the lists : [UP-PCS 2010], List-I, , List-II, , A., , Article 14, , 1., , Amendment procedure, , B., , Article 36, , 2., , Council of Ministers, , C., , Article 74, , 3., , Right to Equality, , D., Article 368, 4., Directive Principles, Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a), 2, 1, 4, 3, (b), 4, 1, 3, 2, (c), 1, 2, 3, 4, (d), 3, 4, 2, 1, 155. Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian, Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for, the creation of the Legislative Council?, [UP-PCS 2010], (a) 168, (b) 169, (c) 170, (d) 171
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 156., (a), (b), (c), (d), 157., (a), (b), (c), (d), 158., (a), (b), (c), (d), 159., (a), (b), (c), (d), 160., (a), (b), (c), (d), 161., , Under which one of the following articles of Indian Constitution,, provision of creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in, States are made? [UP-PCS 2013], Article 168, Article 169, Article 170, Article 171, Provision for appointment of National Commission for SC’s, and ST’s has been made in the Constitution under, article, [UP-PCS 2013], 338 and 338 A, 337, 334, 339, Provision for the representation of Anglo - Indian Community in, the Lok sabha has been made in the Constitution under the, article, [UP-PCS 2013], 331, 221, 121, 139, Which part of our Constitution envisages a three tier system of, Panchayat?, [UP-PCS 2013], Part IX, Part X, Part XI, Part XII, Which one of the following articles directs state Government of, organize Village Panchayats?, [UP-PCS 2014], Article 32, Article 40, Article 48, Article 51, The financial relations between the Union Government and, States have been discussed under. [UP-PCS 2014]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 162., , Article 168 to 171, Article 268 to 281, Article 278 to 291, Article 289 to 295, Which one of the following Articles of Indian Constitution vests, in the President of India the power to issue, ordinances?, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Article 74, (b) Article 78, (c) Article 123, (d) Article 124 (2), 163. Match List –I with List _ II and select the correct answer using, the codes given below the lists : [UP-PCS 2015], List – I, (Provision), , List – II, (Article number the, Constitution), , A., , Equality before Laws, , 1., , Article 42, , B., , Right of Work, , 2., , Article 45, , C., , Just and Humane, conditions of of work, , 3., , Article 14, , D., , Free and compulsory, 4., Article 41, education for children, Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a), 1, 2, 3, 4, (b), 3, 4, 1, 2, (c), 2, 1, 4, 3, (d), 4, 3, 1, 2, 164. Eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India is related?, UP-PCS 2015], (a) Panchayati Raj, (b) Muncipality, (c) Centre Sate relations
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) None of the above, 165. Assertion (a), : Under Article 368, the Parliament, can amend any part of the Constitution., [UP-PCS 2015], Reason (R) : The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative body, elected by the people of India., Choose the correct answer using the codes given below :, Codes :, (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of, (a), (b) Both (a) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct, explanation of (a), (c) (a) is true, but (R) is false, (d) (a) is false, but (R) is true, 166. Article 40 of the Constitution of India advises the State to work, for, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Uniform Civil Code, (b) organisation of Village Panchayats, (c) Constitution of Municipalities, (d) Living wages for workers, 167. The appointment of a Governor in a state is made as per the, provision in the Constitution under article., [UP-PCS 2015], (a) 153, (b) 154, (c) 155, (d) 156, 168. Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during the, national emergency?, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Articles 14 and 15, (b) Articles 19 and 20, (c) Articles 21 and 22, (d) Articles 20 and 21, 169. Under Article 72 of the Constitution of India, President has the, power to grant :, I. Pardons, II. Reprieves
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , III. Respites, IV. Remission, V. Commutation, The correct code is –, (a) I and V are correct, (b) I, II, III and IV are correct, (c) II, III, IV and V are correct, (d) All are correct, 170. Which Article of Indian Constitution defines a money Bill?, (a) Article 110, (b) Article 150, (c) Article 280, (d) Article 285, 171. According to the Supreme Court of India, the foundation of ‘, composite culture’, as mentioned in clause (f) of Article 51 A, is, :, [UGC 2016], (a) the diverse culture of India, (b) the Sanskrit language and literature, (c) the secular fabric of India, (d) the values evolved during the freedom movement, 172. Which of the following is / are listed among the Directive, Principles in Part-IV of the Constitution of Indian?, [BPSC 2017], I. Equal Pay for Equal Work, II. Uniform Civil Code, III. Small family norm, IV. Education through mother tongue at primary level, (a) I, II and III, (b) I and II, (c) II and III, (d) I, II and IV, 173. The Supreme Court has held that hoisting the National flag atop, the private buildings is a fundamental right of every citizen under, –, [BPSC 2017], (a) Article 14 of the Constitution, (b) Article 19(1) (a), of the Constitution
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Article 21 of the Constitution, (d) Article 25 of the Constitution, 174. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the, codes given below –, List-I, List – II, (Articles of the, (Institutions), Constitution), (a) Article 280, 1. Administrative Tribunals, (b) Article 324, 2. Election Commission of India, (c) Article 323, 3. Finance Commission at Union level, (d) Article 315, 4. Union Public Service Commission, Codes :, (a), (b), (c), (d), (a), 1, 2, 3, 4, (b), 3, 2, 1, 4, (c), 2, 3, 4, 1, (d), 2, 4, 3, 1, 175. Which of the following is not correctly matched under the, Constitution of India?, [UP-RO 2016], (a) The panchayats — Part IX, (b) The Municipalities — Part IX – A, (c) The Cooperative Societies — Part IX – B, (d) Tribunals — Part – X, 176. According to which Article of Constitution of India, the Chief, Minister is appointed by the Governor of A State?, [UK-PSC 2016], (a) Article 163, (b) Article 164, (c) Article 165, (d) Article 166, 177. The provisions of reservation for OBC is made in the, Constitution under which Articles?, [UK-PSC 2016], (a) Article 13 (II) and 14, (b) Article 14 and 15, (c) Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV)
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Article 17 and 18, 178. Which one of the following Articles provides reservation of seats, for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the, Panchayats?, [UK-PSC 2016], (a) Article 243 (d), (b) Article 243 (c), (c) Article 243 (b), (d) Article 243 (a), 179. Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution mentions, the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’?, [Chhatisgarh-PSC 2016], (a) Article 200, (b) Article 301, (c) Article 310, (d) Article 311, 180. In which Article, the provision of reservation of Scheduled Caste, and Scheduled Tribes to Panchayat has been given ?, [Chhatisgarh-PSC 2016], (a) 243 A, (b) 243 B, (c) 243 C, (d) 243 D, 181. The term District Judge is mentioned in which of the following, Article of Constitution?, [Chhatisgarh-PSC 2016], (a) Article 230, (b) Article 231, (c) Article 232, (d) Article 233, 182. Censorship of the press is –, (a) Prohibited by the Constitution, (b) Judged by test of reasonableness, (c) Restriction on freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19, (d) Specified in Article 31 of the Indian Constitution, , The Preamble
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 183. The mention of the word ‘justice’ in the Preamble to the, Constitution of India expresses, (a) social, political and religious justice, (b) social, economic and cultural justice, (c) social, economic and political justice, (d) economic and political justice, 184. Which term is not used in the Preamble of the Indian, Constitution ?, (a) Republic, (b) Integrity, (c) Federal, (d) Socialist, 185. The philosophical foundation of the Indian constitution is, (a) Directive principle of state policy, (b) Fundamental rights, (c) Federal structure, (d) Preamble, 186. Which one of the following liberties is not embodied in the, Preamble to the Constitution of India?, (a) Liberty of thought, (b) Liberty of expression, (c) Liberty of belief, (d) Economic liberty, 187. Which one of the following words was not included in the, Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 1975 ?, (a) Fraternity, (b) Sovereign, (c) Equality, (d) Integrity, 188. Consider the following statements in regard to the preamble of, the Constitution of India;, 1. It provides equality of opportunity to its all citizens., 2. It provides liberty of faith to its all citizens., 3. It is given by the citizen of India to themselves., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 189. Which of the following words were added to the Indian, Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976?, 1. SOCIALIST, 2. REPUBLIC, 3. SECULAR, 4. FRATERNITY, 5. UNITY & INTEGRITY, (a) 1, 3 and 5, (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (c) 2, 4 and 5, (d) 2, 4 and 5, 190. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those, enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India:, 1. Sovereign democratic republic, 2. Socialism and secularism, 3. Capitalism and free trade, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2 and 3 only, 191. The preamble to the Indian Constitution serves the following, purpose., 1. The Preamble indicates the source from which the Constitution, desires its power., 2. It also states the objects which the Constitution seeks to, establish and promote., The correct answer is, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 192. Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics., 2. It bans parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections., 3. It grants religious liberty to all communities., 4. It accepts community personal laws., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 3 and 4, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 193. Consider the following statements with reference to Secularism, in India., 1. Secularism means that the State has no recognised religion of, state., 2. Secularism means that the State treats all the religions equally., 3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man, with God., Which of these statements are correct?, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 1 and 3, 194. The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution, of India:, [CDS-2017], 1. Equality of status and opportunity., 2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship., 3. Justice – social, economic and political., 4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual., 5. Unity and integrity of the Nation., Which one of the following is the correct ordr in which they appear in, the Preamble?, (a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3, (b) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5, (c) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4, (d) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 195. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , List-I, (Terms Mentioned in, Preamble), , List-II, (Implications), , A., , Republic, , 1. Head of the State is not a hereditary, monarch, , B., , Secular, , 2. State does not recognise any religion, as a state religion, , C., , Democratic, , 3. Government gets its authority from, the will of the people, , D., , Sovereign, , 4. State is free to conduct its own, internal and external affairs., , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, (b) 1, 3, 2, 4, (c) 2, 3, 1, 4, (d) 3, 2, 1, 4, 196. Which one among the following statements is not, correct?, [NDA 2012-I], The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India read, with, (a) Article 39 (d), would enable the court to uphold the, constitutionality of nationalisation laws, (b) Article 14, would enable the court to strike down a-statute which, failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent, (c) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom guaranteed, under that Article, (d) Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality in income, and status, 197. The Preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because, it, [NDA 2012-II], (a) uses value loaded words
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the constitution, makers, (c) is a source of power and limitation, (d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution, 198. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identify those, enshrined in the Preamble to the Constitution of India., [NDA 2013-II], 1. Sovereign democratic republic., 2. Socialism and secularism., 3. Capitalism and free trade., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 1,2 and 3, (d) 2 and 3, 199. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the, Preamble to the Constitution of India?, (a) Liberty of thought, (b) Economic liberty, (c) Liberty of expression, (d) Liberty of belief, 200. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected, in which of the following?, (a) The Preamble, (b) The Fundamental Rights, (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy, (d) The Fundamental Duties, , Union & Its Territories, 201. In the Constitution of India the term ‘federal’ :, (a) Figures in the preamble, (b) Figures in the part-III, (c) Figures in the Article 368, (d) Does not figure anywhere
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 202. Consider the following statements with reference to the, linguistic reorganisation of states in independent India:, 1. The separate state of Andhra for the Telugu people came into, existence in 1953., 2. Jawaharlal Nehru was particularly in favour of the movement for, linguistic reorganisation of states that came in the wake of, the success of the Andhra movement., Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 203. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, List-I, List-II, (State), (Full Statehoold Granted In), A. Goa, 1. 1966, B. Haryana, 2. 1972, C. Meghalaya, 3. 1976, D. Sikkim, 4. 1987, Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 3, 1, 2, 4, (b) 4, 2, 1, 3, (c) 3, 2, 1, 4, (d) 4, 1, 2, 3, 204. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in, categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950., In this context which of the following statements is correct, ?, [NDA 2012-I], (a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of, category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head, of category B states. The Governor was the executive head, of categories C and D states
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states., The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of, categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive, head of the category D states, (c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The, Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states., The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of, categories C and D states, (d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The, Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B, states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of, categories C and D states, , Citizenship, 205. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Indian, Constitution ?, (a) Federal Government, (b) Independence of Judiciary, (c) Parliamentary Government, (d) Dual Citizenship, 206. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways, can a person become a citizen of India?, 1. By birth, 2. By descent, 3. By registration, 4. By nationalisation, 5. By incorporation, of territory, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5, (d) 3, 4 and 5, 207. In which of the following years, the Citizenship Act, 1955 has, been amended?, 1. 1986
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2. 1992, 3. 2003, 3. 2005, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 208. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following, ways can a person lose citizenship of India?, 1. By Renunciation, 2. By Termination, 3. By Deprivation, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 1 and 3, 209. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship, provisions of the Constitution of India is/ are correct?, (CDS 2015-II), 1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be, deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or, Article 8, if he /she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship, of any foreign State., 2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to, the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other, matters relating to citizenship., Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 210. In which part of the Constitution, details of citizenship are, mentioned?, [NDA 2008-I], (a) I
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) II, (c) III, (d) IV, 211. Consider the following statements [NDA 2009-II], 1. A person who was born on January, 26th, 1951 in Rangoon,, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his, birth is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent., 2. A person who was born on July, 1st 1988 in Itanagar, whose, mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the, father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth., Which of the statements given above is/are corrcet?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 212. Under which of the following conditions can citizenship be, provided in India?, [NDA 2010-I], 1. One should be born in India., 2. Either of whose parents was born in India, 3. Who has been a resident of India for not less than five years., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 2 and 3, (d) None of these, 213. The citizenship means, [NDA 2014-I], 1. full civil and political rights of the citizens., 2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People (of, the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every state., 3. the right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of, Legislative Assemblies., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) All of these
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 214., (a), (b), (c), (d), , Which one of the following features of citizenship in India is, correct?, [UP-PCS 2015], Dual citizenship of the State and Nation, Single citizenship of a State, Single citizenship of whole of India, Dual citizenship of India and another Country, , Fundamental Rights, 215. According to the Constitution of India, the right to equality does, not include, (a) equality before law, (b) absolute equality, (c) equality of opportunity, (d) abolition of untouchability, 216. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following, rights cannot be taken away during emergency?, (a) Right to speak, (b) Right to freedom of movement, (c) Right to life, (d) Right to organize, 217. In which year fundamental duties were included in the Indian, Constitution?, (a) 1974, (b) 1975, (c) 1976, (d) 1977, 218. What is the main difference between Fundamental Rights and, the Directive Principles of state policy?, (a) Constitutional Protection, (b) Political Protection, (c) Judicial Protection, (d) Moral Protection, 219. Which one of the following rights has been described by Dr., Ambedkar as ‘The heart and soul of the Constitution’?, (a) Right of Equality, (b) Right to freedom
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Right to property, (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies, 220. Fundamental Duties enshrined in the Indian Constitution do not, have any, (a) Legal sanction, (b) Political sanction, (c) Social Sanction, (d) Moral sanction, 221. Which one of the following is not related to the fundamental, rights of the Indian Constitution?, (a) Freedom of association, (b) Freedom of movement, (c) Freedom of assembly, (d) Freedom to be elected as a member of parliament, 222. Which one of the following fundamental rights was described by, Dr. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution, ?, [CDS-2017], (a) Right to freedom against exploitation, (b) Right to freedom of religion, (c) Right to equality, (d) Right to constitutional remedies, 223. According to the Indian Constitution, which one is not included, in the fundamental right to equality?, (a) Equality before law, (b) Social equality, (c) Equality of opportunity, (d) Economic equality, 224. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty under the, Indian constitution ?, (a) To protect monuments of national importance, (b) To develop scientific temper, (c) To uphold the unity and integrity of the nation, (d) None of these, 225. Which of the following fundamental rights has been given to, Indian citizen only, (a) Equality before law
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Freedom of speech, (c) Life and personal liberty, (d) Freedom of religion, 226. Which of the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution?, (a) Freedom of assembly, (b) Freedom of residence, (c) Freedom of strike, (d) Freedom of association, 227. Consider the following statements in regard to the fundamental, right for the protection of a person in respect to conviction for, offences, guaranteed in the Indian constitution, 1. The government can’t enact any criminal or civil law with the, retrospective effect, 2. A person, accused of any offence can’t be compelled to be a, witness against himself, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 228. Which of the following statements in regard to the fundamental, rights, mentioned in the Constitution of India are correct?, 1. They are the part of the basic structure of the constitution., 2. They are permanent in nature and can’t be abolished., 3. They can be suspended partially or completely., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 229. A British citizen staying in India can’t claim right to:, (a) Freedom of trade and profession, (b) Equality before the law, (c) Protection of life and personal liberty, (d) Freedom of religion, 230. Consider the following statements:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , The writ of mandamus is available not only against judicial, authorities but also against administrative authorities., 2. The writ of prohibition is issued only against judicial or quasijudicial authorities., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 231. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, [CDS-2016], List-I, (Writs), , List-II, (Ground), , A., , Habeas Corpus, , 1., , Non-performance of, public duties, , B., , Mandamus, , 2., , Unlawful detention, , C., , Quo-Warranto, , 3., , Correctional, directions to, subordinate courts, , D., , Certiorari, , 4., , Unlawful occupation, of public office, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 3, 4, 1, 2, (b) 2, 1, 4, 3, (c) 3, 1, 4, 2, (d) 2, 4, 1, 3, 232. Which of the following statements are true with regard to the, Fundamental Rights of the minorities in educational, matters?, 1. The minority has only the right to administer the educational, institutions.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , The minority has the right to establish and administer educational, institutions., 3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction., 4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed to promote efficiency, and prevent maladministration., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2 and 4, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1 and 3, 233. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, List-I, (Provisions), , List-II, (Contained In), , A., , Liberty of thought and, expression, , 1., , B., , Freedom of speech and 2., expression, , Cultural and educational rights, , C., , Making special, provision for women, and children, , Preamble, , D., , 3., , Right to freedom, , Protection of interest of 4., Protection of life and liberty, minorities, 5., Right to equality, Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 3, 1, 5, 2, (b) 2, 5, 4, 1, (c) 3, 5, 4, 2, (d) 2, 4, 5, 1, 234. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Assertion (a) : Preventive Detention is included in the chapter on, Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India., Reason (R) : The Constitution has vested the legislative power with, regard to preventive detention in the Parliament only and the, State Legislatures have no authority in this regard., Codes:, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 235. Which of the following are mentioned under separate Articles in, Part III of the Consitution of India pertaining to Fundamental, Rights?, 1. Abolition of untouchability, 2. Abolition of titles, 3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular, religion, 4. Protection of interests of minorities, Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 236. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, List-I, (Writ), , List-II, (Purpose), , A., , Writ of mandamus, , 1., , Prohibition of an action, , B., , Writ of injunction, , 2., , Direction to the official for the, performance of a duty, , C., , Writ of certiorari, , 3., , Trial of the right to a title or, elective office
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , D., , Writ of quo-warranto, , 4., , Transferring of a case from, lower court to a court of, higher jurisdiction, , Codes :, A, B, C, D, (a) 2, 1, 4, 3, (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, (c) 3, 4, 2, 1, (d) 4, 3, 1, 2, 237. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of the Right to Life, (Article 21) to include which of the following?, 1. Right to life includes the Right to live with dignity, 2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood, 3. Right to life includes the Right to receive minimum wages, 4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed employment for 100, days in a year, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) Only 4, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 238. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a): Speaking on Article 32 in the Constituent Assembly,, Dr. Ambedkar described the article as the very soul of the, Constitution., Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedies against violation, of fundamental rights., Codes:, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 239. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below: [CDS-2017], Assertion (a): Education is the fundamental right of every child, between the age of 6 and 14 years., Reason (R): The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for, right to education., Codes:, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 240. For which of the following can special provisions be made under, Article 15 of the Constitution of India?, 1. Women and children, 2. Scheduled Tribes, 3. Economically backward classes, 4. Socially backward classes, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 4, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 241. Consider the following statements:, 1. Quo-warranto is a very powerful instrument for safeguarding, against the usurpation of public offices., 2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial, tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to, exercise it., Which of the statement given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 242. Freedom of the press in India is
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) available to the people under the law of the Parliament, (b) specifically provided in the Constitution, (c) implied in the right of freedom of expression, (d) available to the people of India under executive order, 243. Right to Information in India is a, (a) Fundamental Right, (b) Legal Right, (c) Both Fundamental and Legal Rights, (d) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right, 244. Which of the following writs literally means ‘we command’?, (a) Habeas Corpus, (b) Mandamus, (c) Prohibition, (d) Quo-Warranto, 245. Which of the following is not correct regarding writ?, 1. The Supreme Court of India and High Court are empowered to, issue writs under Article 32 and 226 of the constitution but, parliament of India confers this power on any other court in, addition to the Supreme Court and High Court., 2. The Supreme Court has wider jurisdiction to issue writs than the, High Courts., 3. The Supreme Court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction, while a high court may not refuse to exercise its writ, jurisdiction correct code:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1,2 and 3 only, 246. Which of the following statements with regard to preventive, detention in India is / are correct? (CDS 2016-I), 1. The detenue has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses, (4) and (5) of Article 22 of Constitution of India, 2. The detenue has a right to challenge the detention order on the, ground that he was already in jail when the detention order, was passed
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., , The detenue can claim bail on the ground that he has been in, prison beyond twenty- four hours without an order of the, magistrate, Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 247. As per the Constitution of india, the Writ of Prohibition relates to, an order:, (CDS 2016-I), 1. issued against judicial and quasi judicial authority, 2. to prohibit an inferior Court from proceeding in a particular case, where it has no jurisdiction to try, 3. to restrain a person from holding a public office to when he is not, entitled, Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 248. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of thought and, expression to all its citizens subject to, (CDS 2015-II), 1. Implementation of Directive Principles, 2. Fundamental Duties, 3. Right to Equality, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) l and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 only, (d) l, 2 and 3, 249. The protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of, the Constitution of India is not available to, (CDS 2015-II), 1. an enemy alien, 2. a person detained under a preventive detention law
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3. a foreigner, 4. an overseas citizen of India, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) l and 2 only, (b) 1, 3 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 3 and 4 only, 250. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is, subject to, (CDS 2015-II), 1. public order, morality and health, 2. a law providing for social welfare and reform, 3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all, Hindus, 4. defamation or incitement to an offence, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1,2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) l and 2 only, 251. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is / are available to, non-citizens?, (CDS 2015-II), 1. Equality before Law, 2. Right against Discrimination, 3. Equality of Opportunity, 4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1 only, (b) 1 and 4 only, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) 2 and 3, 252. A writ of Habeas Corpus for the release of a person can be, issued, (CDS 2015-II), 1. where the arrest or detention has taken place in contravention of, the procedure established by law, 2. to secure the release of a person imprisoned on a criminal, charge
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., , where the arrest has taken place for contempt of Court or the, Parliament, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 only, (d) l and 2 only, 253. Which of the following statements is/are correct?, [NDA2008-II], Article 26 of the Constitution of India states that subject to public, order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any, section there of shall have the right., 1. to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable, purposes., 2. to manage its own affairs in matters of religion., 3. to own and acquire movable and immovable property., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 1 and 3, (d) All of the above, 254. Which of the following would be construed as a reasonable, restriction of the right to freedom’? [NDA 2009-II], (a) When the state disallows a candidate from securing votes in the, name of religion, (b) When the state disallows citizens from forming a club out of State, funds that denies access to women, (c) When the Government of Nagaland disallows temporary, residents to buy immovable property in Nagaland., (d) All of the above, 255. Which one of the following rights conferred by the Constitution, of India is also available to non-citizens?, [NDA 2009-II], (a) Freedom of speech, assembly and form association, (b) Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of, India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business, (d) Right to constitutional remedies, 256. Which one of the following is a human right as well as a, Fundamental Rights under the Constitution of India?, [NDA 2010-I], (a) Right to Information, (b) Right to Education, (c) Right to Work, (d) Right to Housing, 257. Which of the following statements is/are correct?, [NDA 2010-II], 1. In India, the constitutional remedy under Article 32 is available, only in case of Fundamental Rights, not in the case of rights, which follow from some other provision in the Constitution., 2. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts can issue the writs of, habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo, warranto only for the purpose of enforcement of, Fundamental Rights., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 258. In India the right to ‘freedom of speech and expression’ is, restricted on the grounds of, [NDA 2010-II], 1. the sovereignty and integrity of India., 2. contempt of court., 3. friendly relation with foreign states., 4. protection of minorities., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 4
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 259. Which of the following statements regarding writ of certiorari, is/are correct?, [NDA 2011-I], 1. There should be court, tribunal or an officer having legal authority, to determine the questions of deciding Fundamental Rights, with a duty to act judicially., 2. Writ of certiorari is available during the tendency of proceedings, before a subordinate court., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only I, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 260. Which one among the following statements regarding the, constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is, correct?, [NDA 2011-I], (a) This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and therefore,, universally guarantees education to all citizens of India, (b) This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years, and becomes operational from the year 2015, (c) This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was, the first Welfare State in the world, (d) This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages, of 6 to 14 years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment, Act, 261. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the ‘Right, against, Exploitation’, in, the, Constitution, of, India?, [NDA 2012-I], 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour., 2. Abolition of untouchability., 3. Protection of the interests of the minorities., 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 1 and 4, (d) 2, 3 and 4
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 262. Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the, Constitution of India?, [NDA 2012-I], (a) Freedom to move freely throughout the country, (b) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms, (c) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose property anywhere in the, country, (d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession, 263. The Rights to Information means and includes, [NDA 2012-II], 1. Inspection of documents., 2. Taking out files from office to any place desired by the applicant., 3. Taking photograph of files., 4. Obtaining information in tapes., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 3, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2 and 4, (d) All of these, 264. Which one among the following writs literally means you many, have the body?, [NDA 2012-II], (a) Certiorari, (b) Habeas Corpus, (c) Mandamus, (d) Quo Warranto, 265. The writ of Prohibition is issued by a superior court, [NDA 2012-II], (a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its, jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice, (b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial, functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for, its review, (c) where it can call upon a person to show under what authority, he/she is holding the office, (d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the, court for trial
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 266. Which one among the following statements is not, correct?, [NDA 2013-I], (a) The right conferred by Article 32 cannot be suspended except by, virtue of Article 359 (1) of the Constitution of India, (b) The enforcement of Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended, (c) Punishments can be prescribed by a State Legislation for, offences under Part III of the Constitution of India, (d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the, Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged, with the maintenance of public order, 267. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in, the Constitution of India as a Fundamental Right but has been, subsequently, upheld, by, the, Supreme, Court, as, such?, [NDA 2013-II], (a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business, (b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country, (c) Freedom of association and union, (d) Freedom of the press, 268. Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated, at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is, concerned ?, [NDA 2015-I], (a) Members of the armed forces, (b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility of, maintenance of public order, (c) Members of the forces employed in connection with the, communication systems set up in the country, (d) Members of the forces employed in connection with the, communication systems set up for maintenance of public, order, 269. The citizens of India do not have which one of the following, Fundamental Rights?, [NDA/NA 2016-I], (a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India, (b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of property, (c) Right to practice any profession, (d) Right to form co-operative societies
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 270. Which of the following is/are not fundamental right(s) under the, Constitution of India ?, [NDA/NA 2015-I], 1. Right to education., 2. Right to work., 3. Right to form associations., 4. Right to practise any profession., Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 4, (c) 2 only, (d) 1 and 3, 271. Which of the following statements are true for the Fundamental, Right to Life and Personal Liberty as guaranteed under Article, 21 of the Constitution of India?, [NDA/NA 2014-I], 1. The Right is available to citizens as well as aliens., 2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and legislative, action., 3. It includes the right to live with human dignity., 4. It can be taken away according to the procedure established by, law., Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only, (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1 and 4 only, 272. The Constitution of India guarantees the Fundamental Right to, Freedom of Religion to all its citizens. Which among the, following is not true for this Rights? [NDA/NA 2014-I], (a) It gives freedom of conscience and freedom to profess, practice, and propagate any religion, (b) It gives freedom to establish and maintain institution for religious, and charitable purposes, (c) The Right is subject to public order, morality and health, (d) The State cannot make any law which abrogates this Right for, citizens
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 273. While deciding any question relating the disqualification of a, member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the opinion, of, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Chief Justice of India, (b) Election Commission of India, (c) Attorney General of India, (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha, 274. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are granted only to, citizens of India? Select the correct answer from the code given, below :, [UGC 2016], I. Cultural and educational rights., II. Equality before the law., III. Right against exploitation, IV. Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race,, caste, sex or place of birth., Codes :, (a) I and II only, (b) II and IV only, (c) III and IV only, (d) I and IV only, 275. When were the Fundamental Duties included in the, Constitution?, [MP-PSC 2017], (a) At the time of framing of Constitution, (b) On 26th January, 1950, (c) In the 42nd Constitutional Amendment, (d) In the 41st Constitutional Amendment, 276. Choose the fundamental rights available to Indian Citizen but, not to aliens –, [BPSC 2017], I., Freedom of Speech and Expression, II. Equality Before the Law, III. Right of minorities, IV. Protection of Life and Liberty, (a) I and II, (b) I and IV, (c) II and IV, (d) II and III
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 277., , The concept of ‘Right of service’ originated in –, [UK-PSC 2016], , (a), (b), (c), (d), 278., , The United States of America, Switzerland, Great Britain, China, Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against, Exploitation in the Constitution of India? [IAS 2017], 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour, 2. Abolition of untouchability, 3. Protection of the interests of minorities, 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines, Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 4 only, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only, (c) 1 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 279. Which one of the following statements is correct?, [IAS 2017], (a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens., (b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of, a State., (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State., (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many., 280. Which of the following statements is/are true of the, Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? [IAS 2017], 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties., 2. They are correlative to legal duties., Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 281. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct, relationship between Rights and Duties?, [IAS 2017]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Rights are correlative with Duties., (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and, Duties., (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the, personality of the citizen., (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State., , Directive Principle of State Policies, 282. Concept of welfare state in Indian Constitution is included in, (a) Fundamental Rights, (b) Directive Principles of State Policy, (c) Citizenship, (d) Provision of Election Commission, 283. In how many articles of Indian Constitution, Directive principles, of the state policy are mentioned ?, (a) From Article 36-51, (b) From Article 36-52, (c) From Article 36-53, (d) From Article 36-54, 284. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility, of the state towards international peace and security ?, (a) Fundamental Rights, (b) Directive Principles of state policy, (c) Emergency provisions, (d) Preamble to the constitution, 285. The purpose of the inclusion of directive principles of state, policy in the Indian constitution is to establish?, (a) Political Democracy, (b) Social Democracy, (c) Canadian Democracy, (d) Social and Economic Democracy, 286. Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principle, of state policy?, 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labours., 2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of, intoxicating drinks and of other drugs which are injurious to
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , health., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 287. Which of the following statements about a uniform civil code, is/are correct?, 1. It is binding on the State that a uniform civil code must be made, applicable to all., 2. The provision regarding a uniform civil code is contained in Part, III of the Constitution., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 288. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the State for which of, the following?, 1. To secure a social order of the promotion of welfare of the people, 2. To separate judiciary from executive, 3. To improve public health, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 1, 2, and 3, 289. Consider the following statements:, [NDA 2017], Directive Principles of State Policy are:, 1. Directives in the nature of ideals of the state, 2. Directives influencing and shaping the policy of State, 3. Non-justiciable rights of the citizens, Which of these statements is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) 2 and 3, (c) Only 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 1, 2 and 3, 290. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a): The Directive Principles of State Policy contained in, the Constitution of India are relevant in determining the limits of, reasonable restrictions laid down in Article 19 dealing with the, fundamenal right to Freedom., Reason (R): The Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution, have been superseded by the Directive Principles., Codes:, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 291. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in the, Constitution are not enforceable by any court, yet they are:, (a) Fundamental in the governance of the country, (b) Binding on the State, (c) Enforceable at the instance of the President of India, (d) Superior to Fundamental Rights, 292. Which of the following are included in the Directive Principles of, State Policy in the Constitution of India?, 1. Uniform civil code for the citizens, 2. Separation of judiciary from executive, 3. Protection of monuments of national importance, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 293. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State, Policy?, [CDS 2017], (a) The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform, civil code.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) The State shall promote with special care the educational and, economic interest of the weaker sections., (c) The State shall endeavour to promote adult education to, eliminate illiteracy., (d) The State shall endeavour to protect every monument, place or, object of artistic or historic interest., 294. Which of the following statements is/are correct?, 1. 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India gave primacy to, Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights., 2. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be a balance between, Part III and Part IV of the Constitution., 3. National Commission for Review of the Working of the, Constitution has recommended that Directive Principles be, made justiceable., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 2 only, 295. Which of the following is/are among Directive Principles of State, Policy?, 1. The State shall strive to promote science and technology for, development., 2. The State shall endeavour to secure for citizens a Uniform Civil, Code throughout India., 3. The State shall try to develop population policy and family, planning programmes., 4. The State shall take steps to promote tourism., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 3, (b) 2 and 4, (c) 2 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 296. Consider the following statements:, Directive principles of State Policy are :, 1. Not amendable
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2. Not enforceable by any court, 3. Fundamental in the governance of the country, Which of the above statements are correct?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 297. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian, citizen according to Article 51-A of the Constitution?, 1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy, 2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and, the National Anthem, 3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, 4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture, 5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 3, 4 and 5, (d) 1, 4 and 5, 298. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental, Duties contained in the Indian Constitution are correct?, 1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction., 2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of the Indian Constitution, since its adoption., 3. Fundamental duties became a part of the Constitution in, accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh, Committee., 4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to citizens of India., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 3 and 4, 299. Which of the following duties have been prescribed by the, Indian Constitution as Fundamental Duties? [NDA 2017]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1. To defend the country, 2. To pay income tax, 3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture, 4. To safeguard public property, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) 1, 3 and 4, 300. Which of the following are included in the list of fundamental, duties in the Constitution?, 1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideas and institutions, 2. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence, 3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, 4. To uphold and protect secularism, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 301. Consider the following statements:, The fundamental duties provided in the constitution are:, 1. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, 2. To safeguard private property, 3. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests,, lakes, rivers and wild life of these statements:, Of these statements:, (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, (b) 1 and 2 are correct, (c) 2 and 3 are correct, (d) 1 and 3 are correct, 302. Consider the following statements:, Fundamental duties:, 1. Have always been a part of the Constitution of India, 2. Have been added through an amendment, 3. Are mandatory on all citizens of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Which of these statements is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 3, (b) Only 1, (c) Only 2, (d) 2 and 3, 303. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties have, been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the, Constitution of India?, [NDA 2009-I], (a) 1965, (b) 1976, (c) 1979, (d) 1982, 304. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the, Directive Principles of State Policy? [NDA 2009-II], (a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts, (b) Directive Principles have a political sanction, (c) Directive Principles are declaration of objective for State, Legislation, (d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care, for all Indians, 305. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental, Duties contained in the Constitution of India are, correct?, [NDA 2010-II], 1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction., 2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution since, its adoption., 3. Fundamental Duties became a part of the Constitution in, accordance with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh, Committee., 4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to the citizens of India., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 4, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 3 and 4, 306. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , [NDA 2012-I], (a) lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at, all levels, (b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralised state, (c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government, (d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society, 307. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of, citizens under the Constitution of India?, [NDA 2012-I], (a) To provide friendly co-operation to the people of the neighbouring, countries, (b) To protect monuments of national importance, (c) To defend the country and render national service when called, upon to do so, (d) To know more and more about the history of India, 308. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of, India is/are fulfilled by the National Social Assistance, Programme launched by the Government of India?, [NDA 2012-II], 1. Fundamental Rights, 2. Fundamental Duties, 3. Directive Principles of State Policy, Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) Only 3, (d) All of these, 309. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty of the, citizen of India?, [NDA 2012-II], (a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry, and reform, (b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence, (c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, (d) To practice family planning and to control population, 310. Which one among the following is a Fundamental Duties of, citizens under the Constitution of India?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , [NDA 2013-I], (a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring, countries, (b) To visit the monuments of national importance, (c) To defend the country and render national service when called, upon to do so, (d) To know more and more about the religions of India, 311. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty ?, [NDA/NA 2015-I], (a) To abide by the Constitution of India and respect the national flag, and national anthem, (b) To safeguard public property, (c) To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India, (d) To render compulsory military service, 312. Which of the following is/are not related to fundamental duties?, 1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national, struggle for freedom, 2. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture, 3. To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker, sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes., 4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national, importance., Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 4 only, 313. Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive, Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the, Constitution?, (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women, (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries, (c) Right to work, education and public assistance, (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers, 314. Consider the following statements:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of, State Policy constitute limitations upon, 1. legislative function., 2. executive function., Which of the above statements is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, , Emergency Provisions, 315. The first proclamation of Emergency under article 352 was, made by the President in, (a) 1975, (b) 1971, (c) 1965, (d) 1962, 316. How many types of emergencies have been envisaged under, the Indian Constitution?, (a) Two, (b) Three, (c) Four, (d) One., 317. Consider the following statements :, When the financial emergency has been declared by the President, under the Article 360, then its proclamation :, 1. May be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation, 2. Shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless, before the expiration of that period it has been approved by, the resolution of both Houses of Parliament, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 318. Consider the following statement :
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , No Proclamation of Emergency can be made by the President of, India unless the Union Ministers of Cabinet rank, headed by, the Prime Minister, recommended to him, in writing, that, such a Proclamation should be issued., 2. The President of India must issue a Proclamation of Revocation, of Emergency any time that the Lok Sabha passes a, resolution disapproving the proclamation or its continuance., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 319. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : An imminent danger of war or external aggression is, not enough for the proclamation of emergency., Reason (R) : The Proclamation of Emergency shall cease to, operate at the expiration of one month unless, approved by both the Houses of Parliament., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 320. How many times has Financial Emergency been declared in, India so far?, (a) 5 times, (b) 4 times, (c) once, (d) Never, 321. Which one of the following is the time limit for the ratification of, an emergency period by parliament?, (a) 14 days, (b) 1 month
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) 3 months, (d) 6 months, 322. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the, Parliament for its approval, (a) Within 1 month, (b) Within 2 months, (c) Within 6 months, (d) Within 1 year, 323. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration, of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period, [NDA 2012-I], (a) not exceeding three months, (b) not exceedng nine-months, (c) of one year at a time, (d) of two years at a time, 324. An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can, be declared only during:, [NDA/NA 2015-II], (a) War, external aggression or internal disturbance., (b) War, external aggression or armed rebellion., (c) Failure of Constitutional Machinery in the State., (d) Financial instability in the country., 325. The President of India can issue proclamation of Emergency, (a) on the advice of the Prime Minister, (b) on the advice of the Council of Ministers, (c) in his own discretion, (d) when the decision of the Union Cabinet for the issue of such, proclamation has been communicated to him in writing, 326. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial, emergency?, 1. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished., 2. Central Government can acquire control over the budget and, expenditure of States., 3. Salaries of the Judges of the High Courts and the supreme court, can be reduced., 4. Right to Constitutional Remedies can be suspended.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, Codes:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1 and 2, (d) 2 and 3, 327. Which one of the following cannot be the ground for, proclamation of Emergency under the Constitution of, India?, [URRO 2016], (a) War, (b) External aggression, (c) Armed rebellion, (d) Internal disturbance, 328. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences, of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?, 1., Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly, 2., Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State, 3., Dissolution of the local bodies, Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, , Centre State Relations, Uniform Civil Code, Article 370, etc., 329. Which one of the following is a subject of the concurrent list?, (a) Police, (b) Criminal matters, (c) Radio and Television, (d) Foreign Affairs., 330. Which of the states of Indian federation has a separate, constitution ?, (a) Goa, (b) Tamil Nadu, (c) Jammu & Kashmir, (d) Himachal Pradesh
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 331. Article 371 B of the Constitution of India makes special, provision for which of the following state(s)?, (a) Maharashtra and Gujarat, (b) Assam, (c) Nagaland, (d) Manipur, 332. Which one of the following is not included in the state list in the, Constitution of India?, (a) Criminal procedure code, (b) Police, (c) Law and order, (d) Prison, 333. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extra-legal, device(s) for securing co-operation and coordination between, the states in India?, 1. The National Development Council, 2. The Governor’s Conference, 3. Zonal councils, 4. The Inter-state council, (a) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 1, 3 and 4 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 4 only, 334. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the, following pairs is not matched?, (a) Forests, :, Concurrent List, (b) Stock Exchanges, :, Concurrent list, (c) Post office saving Bank, :, Union List, (d) Public Health, :, State list, 335. Which of the following are the matters covered under List-I of, Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ?, 1. Foreign loans, 2. Atomic energy, 3. Insurance, 4. Public health
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 1 and 4, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 336. Consider the following statement :, 1. Part III of the Constitution of India dealing with Fundamental, Rights is not applicable to the state of Jammu & Kashmir, 2. Part IV of the Constitution of India dealing with Directive, Principles is applicable to the state of Jammu & Kashmir, with some exceptions and conditions, Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 337. The power of the President of India to declare that Article 370, (under which the state of J & K enjoys a special status) shall, cease to be operative, is subject to :, 1. Public notification, 2. Recommendation of Parliament, 3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers, 4. Recommendation of Constituent Assembly of J & K, Of these statements :, (a) 1 and 3 are correct, (b) 1 and 2 are correct, (c) 2 and 4 are correct, (d) 1 and 4 are correct, 338. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force on :, (a) January 26, 1950, (b) January 26, 1952, (c) January 26, 1955, (d) January 26, 1957, 339. Which of the following subjects lies in the concurrent list?, (a) Agriculture, (b) Education
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Police, (d) Defence, 340. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review, (a) the relation between the President and the Prime Minister, (b) the relation between the legislative and the executive, (c) the relations between the executive and the judiciary, (d) the relations between the Union and the State., 341. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary, powers in the Constitution of India are correct ?, 1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament, 2. In the matter of residuary powers, the Constitution of India, follows the Constitution of Australia, 3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls, under the residuary power or not is the Parliament, 4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in, the hands of the Governor-General, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1 and 4, (d) 3 and 4, 342. Who among the following is Constitution empowered to declare, a geographic area as a scheduled area?, (a) Governor, (b) Chief Minister, (c) Prime Minister, (d) President, 343. Following is an example of residuary powers in India, (a) Preventive detention, (b) Service taxation, (c) Labour Laws, (d) None of these, 344. With respect to Article 371 A of the Constitution of India, the, Governor of which one of the following States has special, responsibility with respect to law and order of the State?, [NDA 2008-II]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Asom, (b) Manipur, (c) Nagaland, (d) andhra Pradesh, 345. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the, following pairs is not correctly matched, [NDA 2009-I], Subject, , List, , (a), , Stock Exchanges, , The State List, , (b), , Forest, , The Concurrent List, , (c), , Insurance, , The Union List, , (d), , Marriage and Divorce, , The Concurrent List, , 346. Which of the following statements with regard to Inter-State, Council is/are correct?, [NDA 2010-II], 1. It was established under the provisions of the Constitution of, India., 2. The Council is a recommendatory body., 3. There is a standing committee of the Council under the, Chairmanship of the Prime Minister of India to process, matters for consideration of the Council., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Both 1 and 3, (b) Only 2, (c) 1 and 2, (d) All of these, 347. Which one among the following is not correct?, A special category state invariably, [NDA 2011-I], (a) is a border State, (b) has harsh terrain, (c) has low literacy rate, (d) has poor infrastructure, 348. Which one among the following pairs of level of government and, legislative power is not correctly matched ?, [NDA 2012-I]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Central Government : Union List, (b) Local Governments : Residuary powers, (c) State Governments : State List, (d) Central and State Government : Concurrent List, 349. Consider the following statements:, 1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new, States and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of, existing States by passing a resolution in simple majority., 2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article, 370 of the Constitution of India., [NDA/NA 2016-I], Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 350. Centre - state relations in India are dependent upon, [UP-PCS 2009], 1. Constitutional provisions, 2. Conventions and practises, 3. Judicial interpretations, 4. Mechanisms for dialogue, Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, Codes :, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) All the four, 351. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (a), and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, [UGC 2016], Assertion (a) : federalism is not dead in India., Reason (R) : New regions are constantly demanding statehood., Codes :, (a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of, (a), (c) (a), is true, but (R) is false, (d) (R) is true, but (a), is false, 352. Match the following –, [BPSC 2017], List-I, , List-II, , (a), , Union list, , 1., , 97 entries, , (b), , State list, , 2., , 47 entries, , (c), , Concurrent list, 3., 66 entries, Codes :, (a), (b), (c), (a), 1, 2, 3, (b), 1, 3, 2, (c), 1, 2, 3, (d), 3, 2, 1, (e), None of the above / More than one of the, above, 353. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?, (a) There is an independent judiciary in India., (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the, States., (c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in, the Rajya Sabha., (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., 2., , 3., 4., 5., , 6., , 7., , 8., 9., , (c) B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the drafting committee, of the Constituent Assembly, (a) There were 284 members of the Constituent Assembly who, signed the Constitution of India. The Constitution was, drafted by the Constituent Assembly, which was elected by, the elected members of the provincial assemblies., (b) The permanent President of Constituent Assembly was Dr., Rajendra Prasad., (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was a non-congress member of the, Constituent Assembly. All of them were from Congress, except B.R. Ambedkar., (d) There were 296 members assigned by Cabinet Mission in, Constitution Assembly. The mission consisted of Lord, Patrick-Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir, Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade, and A. V., Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty., 296 seats assigned in the cabnit mission in India Constitution., (c) The Indian Constitution is the world’s longest Constitution., At the time of commencement, the Constitution had 395, articles in 22 parts and 8 schedules. It consists of almost, 80,000 words and took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to, make., (c) Cabinet Mission Plan gave the idea of Constituent, Assembly for India. In 1946, British Prime Minister Clement, Attlee formulated a Cabinet Mission to India., ‘Rajaji’ formula was formulated by C. Rajagopalchari to solve the, political dead-lock between All India Muslim League and, Indian-National Congress. Wavell plan (1945) was talks, between these two political parties., (c) Constitution of India enacted on 26th November 1949 by, President of India and came into force on 26th January, 1950., (c) The first meeting of the constituent assembly was held on 9, Dec 1946.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 10. (b) Nov 26, 1949 constitution was completed., 11. (d) The proposal for framing of the constitution of India by an, elected constituent assembly was made by British cabinet, delegation., 12. (d) A. K. Aiyer was the member of constituent assembly of, India from Madras state., 13. (b) J. L. Nehru moved the ‘Objective Resolution’ in the, constituent assembly., 14. (a) The number of members included in the Constitution, Drafting Committee was seven., 15. (a), 16. (c) Seats allocated to each British province were to be decided, among the three principal communities Muslim, Sikhs and, general (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their, population., The chairman of the Union constitution committee was, Jawaharlal Nehru., The total strength of constituent Assembly was to be 389., Drafting Committee was consisted of seven members., 17. (a) Steering Committee – Rajendra Prasad, Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee – J.B. Kripalani, Union Constitution Committee – Jawahar lal Nehru., Provincial Constitution Committee – Sardar Vallabhbai Patel, 18. (c) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha – Provisional president of the, Constituent assembly., H.C Mukharjee- Vice President of the Constituent Assembly., 19. (b) H.C. Mukherjee was the first vice president of the, constituent assembly. K.M. Munshi was originally the only, Congress member of the draft committee. V.T., Krishnamachari was the member of the Constituent, Assembly representing Rajasthan’s princely states., Jawaharlal Nehru was the chairman of the Union, Constitution Committee., 20. (a) In general the British observed customary laws of India., 21. (d) The formation of the Constituent Assembly includes the, following facts-
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (i) On the basis of the provincial election of 1946, the members of, the Constituent Assembly., (ii) Opinions were invited from the public to evolve a sense of mass, participation., 22. (d) Sub-committee headed by Gopinath Bordoloi was, appointed by the constituent Assembly of India to, recommend the future pattern of administration of the North, Eastern Frontiers Areas., 23. (a) The Constitution of India was drafted by the constituent, assembly and it was set up under the cabinet Mission plan, on 16 May 1946. Dr. Rajendra Prasad then became the, President of the Constituent Assembly. Tiruvellore Thattai, Krishnamachari was a member of drafting committee., Harendra Coomar Mookerjee was the Vice-president of the, Constituent Assembly of India for drafting the Constitution of, India. Bhimrao Ambedkar was appointed Chairman of the, Constitution Drafting Committee., 24. (b) On 29 August 1947, the Drafting Committee was appointed, with Dr B. R. Ambedkar as the Chairman along with six, other members assisted by a constitutional advisor. These, members were Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant, K M Munshi,, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopala swami Ayengar, B L, Mitter and Md. Saadullah. A Draft Constitution was, prepared by the committee and submitted to the Assembly, on 4 November 1947.This is Ambedkar’s second argument, rested on the legitimacy of the democratic system., 25. (d) The Drafting Committee for framing the constitution was, appointed on 29th August 1947.The committee comprised, of a chairman and six other members. The committee, members were:- Dr B. R. Ambedkar(Chairman), K M, Munshi, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, N Gopalaswami, Ayengar, B L Mitter, Md. Saadullah and D P Khaitan., 26. (b) In Keshvanand Bharti V. State of Kerala is was laid down, by the Supreme Court that the Preamble of the Indian, Constitution is amended only those parts of the preamble, which contain basic features could not be amended.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 27., 28., , 29., 30., 31., 32., , 33., , 34., , 35., , (a) Three word socialist secular and integrity in the preamble, of Indian constitution were added by 42nd amendment Act, of 1976., (c) The members of the Drafting committee were Dr B R, Ambedkar (Chairman), Krishnaswamy Aiyar, Dr K M, Munshi, N Gopalaswamy Aiyanger, Syed Mohammad, Saadullah, B L Mitter and D P Khaitan. Later in place of, Mitter and Khaitan new members, N Madhava Rau and T T, Krishnamachari joined the committee as members., (b), (d) The idea of preamble to the Indian constitution is borrowed, from constitution of United States of America., (c) M.K. Gandhi was not a member of the Drafting committee, of the constitution of India., (d) In the Constitution of India, the term ‘federal’ appears in the, part I of the Constitution. The ‘Preamble’ is the brief’, introduction of the ‘Constitution’. It states about ‘the People, of India’ having solemnly into Sovereignity, democracy,, justice, liberty, equality etc. Part III constitution deals with, ‘Fundamental rights (article 12 – 35). Article 368 is for, provision of amendments in constitution., (b) Federal structure of government in Indian constitution is, taken from ‘Canadian constitution’. Charter of fundamental, rights, power of Judicial review and independence of, Judiciary, written constitution and preamble are taken from, USA. Fundamental duties and five year planning are taken, from Russia., (b) The concept of fundamental rights is borrowed from USA., Directive Principles of state policy, method of election of the, President, nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by, the President are taken from Irish Constitution., (a) The phrase equality before law of Indian Constitution has, been borrowed from Britain. The term Republic and the idea, of liberty, equality and fraternity in the preamble was, borrowed from constitution of France.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 36. (b) Any articles can be amended under Article 368 which, means the amendment challenged on the grounds of fact., The Supreme Court recognized interpretation is the basic, structure of constitution., 37. (c) Sovereignty of Parliament is not a feature of Indian, constitution. Judicial review refers to the power of the, judiciary to interpret the constitution and law or order of the, legislature and executive void., 38. (a) Quasi federal refers to a govt. formed similar to union of, states under a central govt. rather than the individual govt., of the separate state., 39. (c) Republican form of government is not a part of the ‘basic, structure’ of Indian constitution. India is a Democraticrepublic country. Parliamentary form of government means, Prime Minister is the head of the council of ministers., 40. (c) Indian constitution is neither rigid nor flexible., 41. (c) The ides of concurrent list, provision regarding trade,, commerce and intercourse, languages of preamble have, been borrowed from Australia., 42. (a) DPSP in Indian constitution has been taken from Ireland., 43. (a) Federal system - Canada, 44. (c) UK — Nominal Head – President (like Queen); Cabinet, System of Ministers; Post of PM; Parliamentary Type of, Govt.; Bicameral Parliament; Lower House more powerful;, Council of Ministers responsible to Lower House; Speaker, in Lok Sabha, US — Independence of Judiciary and judicial review; Written, Constitution; Executive head of state known as President, and his being the Supreme Commander of the Armed, Forces; Vice- President as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya, Sabha; Fundamental Rights; Supreme Court; Provision of, States; Preamble; Removal of Supreme court and High, court Judges, USSR — Five year Plan; Fundamental Duties, Australia — Concurrent list; Language of the preamble; Provision, regarding trade, commerce and intercourse
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 45., 46., 47., , 48., 49., , Japan — Law on which the Supreme Court function, Ireland — Method of election of President; Concept of Directive, Principles of States Policy(Ireland borrowed it from SPAIN);, Nomination of members in the Rajya Sabha by the, President, (d) The constitution doesn’t mention direct control by the, people such as referendum, initiative and recall., (b) Indian Constitution is the lengthiest of all the written, constitution of the world. It is largely based on Government, of India Act 1935., (c) Emergency Provision-Germany, Fundamental Rights-U.S.A, Parliamentary System-U.K, Directive principles of State Policy-Ireland, (d) The constitution of India establishes a federal system of, Government. It contains all the usual features of the, Federation., (d), , 50. (a) Separation of powers between the Union and state, government or federal system may exist under the, presidential government system also as it is found in, the United states of America. The doctrine of, “separation of powers” envisages the concept of, division of powers. In India, the fountain-head of, power is the Constitution., 51. (c) Features of Federal Government :•, Dual Government (National Government and Regional, Government), •, Written Constitution, •, Division of powers between national and regional government, •, Supremacy of the Constitution, •, Rigid Constitution, •, Independent Judiciary, •, Bicameral Legislature
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 52., , 53., 54., , 55., 1., 2., 3., 4., 56., , 57., , (a) A federal system has a written constitution, the presence of, the constitutional division of power amongst different federal, units and an independent judiciary. Quasi federalism implies, a system having a federal government with a unitary spirit., India and Canada have quasi-federalism., (b) There were separate courts and even laws for Indians and, Europeans. In Criminal cases the Europeans could be tried, only by European judges., (c) There is no provison in the Constitution of India to give, official status to a particular religion, to provide freedom to, profess any religion and to ensure equality of all citizens, within religious communities., (b) Constitution of India is unique in itself. Many features of our, constitution are borrowed from various sources around the, world., Amendment of the constitution - Constitution of South Africa, Directive Principles- Irish Constitution, Emergency Powers of the President- Constitution of the, Germany, The Union State Relations- Constitution of Canada, (d) India is a Quasi-Federal country because the Constitution, of India is federal in nature but unitary in spirit. It has, common features of a federation such as written, Constitution, supremacy of Constitution, rigidity of, Constitution, two governments, division of powers,, bicameralism as well as unitary features like single, Constitution, integrated judiciary and All-India Services etc., (a) Dual Citizenship is not found in the Indian political system., The Indian Constitution does not allow dual citizenship., Automatic loss of Indian citizenship covered in Section 9(1), of the Citizenship act 1955, provides that any citizen of India, who by naturalisation or registration acquires the citizenship, of another country shall cease to be a citizen of India. Indian, Government has started OCI (Overseas citizen of India), Scheme in 2005.According to the scheme if you are already, a Person of Indian origin (POI) and have taken up
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , citizenship abroad, you can take up benefits of OCI, scheme, which gives you the same travel and residence, privileges like other Indians but you are not allowed to vote, and take up jobs in Government sector., 58., 59., 60., , 61., , 62., 63., 64., , 65., , (c), (d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part, of the Constitution is not a basic feature of the Constitution, of India., (c) One of the features of the federal system is the distribution, of power between the federal government and the, government of the states.Some powers are given to the, federal government and some other remaining powers are, given to the government of states. The federal government, is powerful over the matter of national (or) general, importance. Both federal and state governments functioning, strictly within the sphere demarcated for them., (d) Article 32 of the Indian constitution is called as the pillar of, constitution. About this part of the constitution Dr., Ambedaker has said that it was the soul of Indian, Constitution., (c) Provisions relating right to equality are contained in Article, 14, 15, 16 and 17 of the Indian Constitution., (b) India has adopted a federation of Canadian type., (b) (Article 44 of the Indian Constitution provides for uniform, civil code for the citizens). A uniform civil code administers, the same set of secular civil laws to govern all people, irrespective of their religion, caste and tribe. Uniform civil, code is the proposal to replace the personal laws of each, major religious community in India. 46th amendment,, amending articles 269, 286, 366 to agate judicial, pronouncements on scope and applicability on sales Tax., 48th amendment amending article 356 of president rule. It, permits President’s rule up to two years in the state of, Punjab., (d) (Article 32 of the Constitution of India deals with the ‘Right, to Constitutional Remedies’. Remedies for enforcement of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , The, , 66. (c), , 67. (c), , 68. (d), , 69. (c), , rights conferred by this Part)., constitution of India provides the right of freedom in article, 19 – 22. Article 19 guarantees the ‘Freedom of speech’ and, ‘expression’ as one of its six freedoms. Article 21 A states, that the state shall provide free and compulsory education, to all children of age 6 – 14 years. Article 14 provides ‘right, to Equality’. Equality before law, abolition of untouchability, ‘prohibition of discrimination on ground’ of religion, caste,, sector, place of birth are the major aspects of Article 14., Part XII of the Indian Constitution deals with centre-state, financial relations. Part XV deals with Election Commission, of India. In part XIV services under the union and the states,, Public Service Commissions are mentioned. Part X includes, article 244 – 244A and is about administration of scheduled, areas and tribal areas., Article 360 of the Indian Constitution provides for provision, for the financial emergency. The provision of national, emergency is mentioned under article 352. National, emergency can be declared on the external aggression or, armed rebellion in any part of country. Article 356 refers to, imposition of ‘President’s rule’, also called constitutional, emergency. Article 361 is for Protection of President and, Governors and Rajpramukhs., The powers of panchayats are stated in the 11th schedule, of the Indian Constitution. 8th schedule of constitution, enlists 22 Indian recognized languages. 9th schedule was, added by Ist amendment in 1957. It contains acts, orders, related to land tenure, land tax, railways industry. 10th, schedule was added by 52nd amendment in 1985, contains, provisions of disqualification of grounds of defection., Articles 05 to 11 of the Indian Constitution deal with, citizenship in India. The legislation related to this matter is, the Citizenship Act 1955, which has been amended by the, Citizenship (Amendment) Act 1986, the Citizenship
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 70., , 71., , 72., , 73., , (Amendment) Act 1992, the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, and the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005., Article 17, article 18 are about abolition of ‘unatouchability and, titles’ respectively. Article 19 to article 22 deal with ‘right to, freedom’. Article 1-4 deals with ‘Union and its Territory., Article 330-342 mentions ‘special provisions relating to, certain classes., (c) Under the Article 275 the Parliament provides financial, assistance to states. This is a central sector scheme and, grants are provided to the states on the basis of ST, population percentage in the state to the total tribal, population of the country. Article 273 deals with grants in, lieu of export duty on jute and jute products. Article 274, mentions prior recomendation of President required to Bills, affecting taxation in which states are interested. Article 276, is about taxes on professions, trades, callings and, employments., (c) The seventh schedule of the Constitution deals with the, division of powers between union and states. Article 246—, The union (central government), state, and concurrent lists, of responsibilities. 6th schedule deals with provisions for, administration of tribal area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura,, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh. 4th schedule is about, allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha., (d) Under Article 61 of the Constitution, the President of India, can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution,, which is solely to be decided by the Parliament. Article 57 is, about eligibility for re-election. Article 76 deals with Attorney, General of India. Article 79-122 deals with Parliament., Article 79 mentioned about ‘constitution of Parliament’., (c) Under article 143 of the constitutional provision, the, Supreme Court of India extends advice to the President of, India. The article is about Power of President to consult, Supreme Court., Article 141 and 142 given so much power to the supreme court of, India. The law declared by the supreme court shall be
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 74., , 75., , 76., , 77., , binding on all courts within the territory of India. Article 144, deals with civil and judicial authorities to act in the territory, of India in aid of the Supreme court., (d) Under the Article 249, the Parliament of India can legislate, on any subject in the state list in national interest. The, Council of States has declared by resolution supported by, not less than two thirds of the members present and voting, that it is necessary in national interest that Parliament, should make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in, the State List specified in the resolution., Article 229 is for officers and servants and expenses of High, Courts. Article 230 deals with extension of jurisdiction of, High Courts to union territories. Article 247 gives power to, the Parliament to provide establishment of certain additional, courts., (a) Article 323 A specifies Administrative Tribunal like providing, separate, administrative, tribunal, for, union, and, states,jurisdiction power, repeal or amend any order made, by the President under clause. Article 323 B is about, tribunals for other matters like tribunals of any disputes,, complaints with respect to matters in which legislature has, power to make laws. Article 324 deals with, superintendence, direction and control of election to be, vested in Election Commission. Article 325 stated, no, person to be ineligible for inclusion in electoral roll on, grounds of religion, race, caste or sex., (d) Article 61 deals with procedure for impeachment of the, President. It can be initiated by either house of the, parliament and these charges should be signed by onefourth members of the house and a 14 days notice should, be given to the President. Article 58 is about qualifications, for election as President. Article 58 deals with conditions of, President’s office and article 60 is about oath or affirmation, by the President., (b) Article 30 is about right of minorities to establish and, administer educational institutions. In article 31 compulsory
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 78., 79., 80., (1), , 81., 82., , 83., 84., 85., , acquisition of property is mentioned., (d) The XI schedule of the constitution deals with Panchayati, Raj. IInd schedule deals with salary of President, Chief, justice, Governors & CAG of India., (b) 4th Schedule of constitution is related to allotment of seats, in Rajya Sabha. Democratic-republic form of government is, the basic structure of the constitution., (a) The provision for Constitution of Legislatures in states is, enshrined in Article 168 of the Indian Constitution., The States of Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Uttar Pradesh, have two houses and, in other States, one House., Article 153 is related to Governors of states. Article 174 deals, with sessions of the state legislature, proporgation and, dissolution. Article 197 is about restriction on powers of, legislative council as to Bills other than money Bills., (d) The duty of state is mentioned in chapter IV. In part I, union, and its territories are mentioned. Part II is about citizenship, and Part III is for fundamental rights., (a) Article 3 of the Constitution allows the centre to form new, states and is regarding formation of new States and, alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States., Uniting two or more States or parts of States or uniting any, territory to a part of any State; Article 4 deals with laws, made under article 2 and 3 to provide amendment of the, first and fourth schedule. Rights of citizenship of certain, persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan is, mentioned in Article 6., (d) In 6th schedule provision for administration of tribal areas in, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh, is given., (c) There are 29 subjects kept under the jurisdiction of, Panchayats in the XI schedule of the constitution., (d) Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with amendment, procedure. Article 368 has been amended by the 24th and, 42nd Amendments in 1971 and 1976 respectively.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 86., , 87., 88., , 89., , 90., , 91., 92., , Article 268 deals with duties levied by Union but collected and, appropriated by the states. Article 352 is about proclamation, of emergency. Article 356 provisions in case of failure of, constitutional machinery in states., (b) In part XI relations between the union and the states is, mentioned. Part XIII deals with Trade and commerce within, the territory of India. Part XII is about Finance, property,, contracts and suits., (b) Divided into 22 chapters, 395 articles and 11 schedules., (c) Article 13 provides that any law passed in violation of, fundamental rights is void to the extent of such violation., The State shall not make any law which takes away or, abridges the rights conferred by this part and any law made, in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of the, contravention, be void., Article 12 is about definition of Fundamental rights., (b) Article 249 of the Indian Constitution is associated with the, functions of the state list. If the Council of States has, declared by resolution supported by not less than two thirds, of the members present and voting that it is necessary or, expedient in national interest that Parliament should make, laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List, specified in the resolution., Concurrent list of 52 items is mentioned in 7th schedule in article, 246., (b) Article 51A enlisted fundamental duties. Article 32 deals, with remedies for enforcement of fundamental rights. Article, 35 provides legislation to give effect to the fundamental, rights., (b) ‘State’ word is mentioned in Article 8. In article 1 ‘union and, state’ is mentioned. Article 12 deals with definition of, fundamental rights., (d) Under Article 226 of Indian Constitution a High Court can, issue writs to protect the fundamental rights., Notwithstanding anything in Article 32 every High Court
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 93., , 94., , 95., , 96., , 97., 98., , 99., , shall have powers, throughout the territories in relation to, which it exercises jurisdiction., Article 35 deals with legislation to give effect to the provisions of, this part., (c) Article 213 of Indian Constitution empowers the governor to, issue ordinances during recess of the state legislature., Concerning power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances, during recess of Legislature., Article 210 is for language to be used in the legislation. Article, 211 deals with restriction on discussion in the legislature., Article 214 deals with high court of states., (a) original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned in Article, 131 of the Indian Constitution. The Supreme Court shall, to, the exclusion of any other court, have original jurisdiction in, any dispute., Article 132 deals for appellate jurisdiction of Supreme court in, appeals from High Court in certain cases., (d) Article 249 empowers the power of Parliament to legislate, with respect to a matter in the state list in the national, interest. Article 226 gives power of high courts to issue, certain writs. Article 116 deals with votes on account, votes, of credit and exceptional grants., (b) Article 148 deals with Comptroller and Auditor-General of, India’s appointment. Article 149 deals with duties and, powers of the CAG. Article 151 deals with audit reports of, CAG., (c) Under article 30 right of minorities to establish and manage, educational institution is mentioned., (a) Article 343 declares Devnagri Hindi as an official language, of India. Article 348 is about language used in the Supreme, Court and High Courts. Article 154 deals with executive, power of state. Article 156 declares term of office of, Governor., (a) Article 110 - definition of money bills, Article 111 - Assent to Bills, Article 112 - Annual financial statement
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Article 113 - Procedure in Parliament with respect to estimates, 100. (d) Article 40 - Organization of village Panchayats, Article 73 - Extent of executive power of union, Article 36 - definition of DPSP, Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in factories., 101. (d) Article 111 - assents on any Bill., Article 108 - Joint sitting of both houses in certain cases., Article 109 - Special procedure in respect of money bill., 102. (c) Under Article 262 of the Indian Constitution the adjudication, of disputes relating to water of inter-state rivers or river, valleys is done., Article 260 - Jurisdiction of the Union in relation to territories, outside India. Article 261 deals with public acts, records and, judicial proceedings., 103. (a) Three tier system panchayats enlisted in part IV of the, constitution., 104. (c) Article 312 of the Indian Constitution provides for All India, Services. The services known at the commencement of this, Constitution as the Indian Administrative Service and the, Indian Police Service shall be deemed to be services, created by Parliament under this article., Article 310 - Tenure of office of persons serving the union or a, state, Article 314 - Provision for protection of existing officers of certain, services., Article 311 - Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank of persons, employed in civil capacities under the union or a state., 105. (c) Article 143 provides power of President to consult Supreme, Court. Article 129 refers Supreme Court to be a court of, record., 106. (c) Article 53 - executive power of the union., Article 52 - The president of India, Article 54 - Election of president., 107. (d) Constitution of India provides for an election commission, under article 324. Article 321 empowers power to extend
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , functions of Public service commission. Under article 322, expenses of public service commission mentioned., 108. (d) Article 169 deals with abolition or creation of Legislative, councils in states. Article 269 deals with taxes levied and, collected by the Union but assigned to state., 109. (a) Article 265 of the constitutional provisions lays down that, taxes can neither be levied nor collected without the, authority of law. Taxes are not to be imposed by authority of, law., Article 266 deals with taxes not to be imposed by authority of law., Suits and proceedings of property, assets, rights, liabilities, mentioned in article 300., 110. (c) part IV-A fundamental duties, part IV - Derective Principles of state policy., part III - Fundamental rights, part VI - The states, 111. (d) The forms of oaths or affirmations, in the third schedule of, the Indian constitution, are mentioned for the given officials., Third Schedule–(Articles 75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2), 164(3),, 188 and 219)., 112. (a) The states and UTs of India are specified in the first, schedule. So to form a new state and alteration of area, requires the amendment of first schedule of the constitution., First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4) lists the states and, territories of India, lists any changes to their borders and the, laws used to make that change., 113. (d) The fourth schedule of the constitution is about allocation of, seats in the council of states. Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1), and 80(2)) details the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha, (the upper house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory., 114. (a) First amendment made in 1951, inserted two new articles,, 31A and 31B and the 9th schedule to give protection from, challenge to land reforms. It formed the subject-matter of, dilatory litigation, as a result of which the implementation of, these important measures, affecting large numbers of, people, had been held up. Accordingly, a new article 31A
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , was introduced with retrospective effect to uphold such, measures. Further, another new article 31B was introduced, to validate 13 enactments relating to zamindari abolition., 115. (a) Article 54- Election of the president., Article 155- Appointment of the PM and council of ministers., Article 164- Appointment of the CM and council of Ministers of a, state., 116. (c) Article 14- Equality before Law, Article 15- Prohibition of Discrimination, Article 16- Equality of Opportunity, Article 17- Abolition of untouchability, Article 18- Abolition of titles., 117. (d), Schedule, , Added by, , Particulars, , Ninth, , Ist amendment in Contains acts & orders, related to land tenure, land, 1951, tax, railways, industries., {Right of property not a, fundamental right now}, , Tenth, , 52nd amendment Contains provisions of disqualification of grounds of, in 1985, defection, , Eleventh, , 73rd amendment Contains provisions of, Panchayati Raj., in 1992, , Twelfth, , 74th amendment Contains provisions of, Municipal Corporation, in 1992, , 118. (b) Finance, property Contracts and Suits are mentioned in, part XII. The union territory in Part V, The executive of, states in part IV and Relation of states in part XI of the, constitution., 119. (b) Forms of Oaths and Affirmations are the subject of Third, Schedule. Salary of President, Governors, Chief Judges,
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Judges of High Court and Supreme Court, Comptroller and, Auditor General are the subject of Second Schedule., 120. (b) Ninth Schedule- Added by Ist amendment in 1951., Contains acts & orders related to land tenure, land tax,, railways, industries.{Right of property not a fundamental, right now}, Tenth Schedule- Added by 52nd amendment in 1985. Contains, provisions of disqualification of grounds of defection, Eleventh Schedule- By 73rd amendment in 1992 Contains, provisions of Panchayati Raj, Twelfth Schedule- By 74th amendment in 1992 Contains, provisions of Municipal Corporation., 121. (c), 122. (a), , 123. (b) Prohibition of discrimination – Article-15, Prohibition of employment of children in factories –Article-24, Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases- Article, 22, Abolition of untouchability- Article-17, 124. (c) Article 39-A Free legal Aid, Article- 43- Living wage of workers., Article- 44 – Uniform Civil Code., Article- 50- Separation of Judiciary., Articles mentioned above are the part of Directive principles of, the state policy., 125. (a) Article 50 – Separation between judiciary and executive., Article-143- Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court., Article 51 – Impeachment of the President., Article- 320 – Function of Public Service Commission., 126. (c) Right to equality – Article-14, Right to Freedom- Article-19, Right to freedom of Religion- Article 25, Right to constitutional Remedies – Article 32, 127. (a), 128. (c) The Union Budget of India also referred to as the Annual, financial statement in the Article 112 of the Constitution of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , India, is the annual budget of the Republic of India. Article, 115 deals with Supplementary, additional or excess grants., Appropriation Bills deal with Article 114. Definition of Money, Bill is given in Article 110., 129. (b) The Finance Commission was established by the President, of India under the Article 280 of the Indian Constitution., Article 315 of the Indian Constitution deals with the, establishment of the Union Public Service Commission., Article 324 of the Indian Constitution encompasses the, establishment of the election commission. Article 148 of the, Indian Constitution enumerates the appointment and, oath/affirmation process of the comptroller and auditorgeneral of India., 130. (d) Panchayats as a duty of state is mentioned in chapter IV of, the constitution., 131. (b) The entry “public health and sanitation” is included in the, state list of the constitution of India., The legislative section is divided into three lists - Union list, State, list and Concurrent list., 132. (d) All the three 1, 2, 3 correctly matched., 133. (d) schedule VI of our Constitution does not deal with the, administration of the tribal areas of Arunachal Pradesh,, Manipur and Nagaland. There is the provision for, administration of Tribal Area in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura,, Mizoram & Arunachal Pradesh in VI schedule of Indian, Constitution., 134. (a), , 135.(a) The recognized languages in the 8th Schedule of the, constitution - Assamese, Bengali, Bodo, Dogri,, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili,, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepalli, Oriya, Punjabi,, Sanskrit, Santhali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu & Urdu., 136. (c) The sixth schedule to the constitution of India deals with, Autonomous District Councils (ADCs)., 137. (a) Article 343 of the constitution of India states that:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , •, , Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the national language of the, Union., • English language shall continue to be used for official purpose, within states., • If two or more than two states agree, Hindi language should be, the official language of communication between the, states., 138. (d) The 10th Schedule to the Indian Constitution is known as, Anti-Defection Law. It was inserted by the 52nd Amendment, Act 1985 to the Constitution. It sets the provisions for, disqualification of elected members on the grounds of, defection to another political party., 139. (c) 7th Schedule gives allocation of powers and functions, between Union & States. It contains 3 lists:, Union List (97 Subjects), States List (66 subjects), Concurrent List(52 subjects), 140. (b) Schedule X was added by 52nd amendment in 1985. It, contains provisions of disqualification on the grounds of, defection., 141. (b) Article 46 deals with Promotion of educational and, economic interests of the weaker sections of the people,, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the, Scheduled Tribes and shall protect them from social, injustice and all forms of exploitation. It does not provide, free legal aid to them. According to Article 14, “the State, shall not deny to any person equality before the law or, equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”., 142. (b) According to Article 164(1) in the State of Bihar, Madhya, Pradesh and Orissa, there shall be a Minister in charge of, tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the, welfare of the Scheduled Castes and backward classes or, any other work. Punjab is not covered by the Article., 143. (d) All of the above statements are correct., 144. (a) The Ninth Schedule was added by the 1st Amendment, 1951 to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.However in, 2007 Supreme Court ruled that the laws included in it after, 24 April 1973 are now open to judicial review., 145. (d) Under Article 226, a High Court can issue these writs not, only for the purpose of enforcement of the fundamental, rights but also for the redress of any other injury or illegality,, owing to contravention of the ordinary law., 146. (b) Tribal areas generally mean areas having preponderance, of tribal population. However, the Constitution of India refers, tribal areas within the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, & Mizoram, as those areas specified in Parts I, II, IIA & III of, the table appended to paragraph 20 of the Sixth Schedule., 147. (b), 148. (b) Legislature, executive and judiciary under the Constitution, are to exercise powers with checks and balances, but not in, water-tight rigid mould. In India, on the basis of Articles 32 and, 136, the Supreme Court can exercise the power of judicial, review., 149. (b) The Fourth Schedule (Articles 4(1) and 80(2)) of the Indian, Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya, Sabha (the upper house of Parliament) per State or Union, Territory., 150. (b) The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and, includesThe union (central government) state, and, concurrent lists of responsibilities., 151. (a) The Article 368 deals with power of Parliament to amend, the Constitution and its procedure., 152. (d) According to Article 111 when a bill is passed by both the, House of Parliament it will be presented to the President for, his assent. now the President will decide whether to given, his assent to the bill or withhold his assent., 153. (b) Share Market relates to Union list., 154. (d) The correct matching will be as following :, List – I, List – II, A., Article 14, 3., Right to Equality, B., Article 36, 4., Directive Principles
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , C., Article 74, 2., Council of Ministers, D., Article 368, 1., Amendment procedure, 155. (b), 156. (b) Article 169 deals with the provision of creation or abolition, of Legislative Councils in states., 157. (a) Artilce 338 deals with National Commission for, Scheduled Castes. National Commission for Scheduled, Tribes is related with Article 338A., 158. (a) Representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok, Sabha or Lower House of parliament is mentioned in the, Article 331 of the Indian Constitution., 159. (a) Part IX of the constitution under article 243-C deals with, Composition of Panchayats, 160. (b) Article 40 of the Indian constitution deals with, organisation of village panchayats by state government., 161. (b) The financial relations between Union Government and, State Government or more specifically distribution of, revenues between the Union and the States have been, discussed under Articles 268 to 281 of the Indian, Constitution., 162. (c) President can issue ordinance when one of the houses of, the Parliament is not in session. The Article 123 deals with, Power of President to promulgate Ordinances during recess, of Parliament., 163. (b), 164. (a) The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related, to Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats., 165. (a) Article 368 of the Constitution deals with the powers of, Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure., The Parliament of India is the supreme legislative body of, the Republic of India. The Indian Parliament consists of the, President, Lok Sabha (the Lower House), and the Rajya, Sabha (Upper House)., 166. (b) Article 40 of the Indian constitution deals with organisation, of village panchayats.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 167. (c) Appointment of the Governor of Indian state is described, under Article 155 of the Indian constitution., 168. (d) Article 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during national, emergency., 169. (d) Article 72 says that the President shall have the power to, grant Pardons, Reprieves, Respites or Remissions of, Punishment or to Suspend, Remit or Commute the, sentence of any person convicted of any offence., 170. (a) A money bill is defined by Article 110 of the constitution., 171. (b) According to Supreme Court of India, the Foundation of, ‘Composite Culture’, as mentioned in clause (f) of Article 51, A is the Sanskrit Language and literature., 172. (b) Small family norm and Education through mother tongue at, primary level are not listed among the Directive Principles in, Part-IV of the Indian Constitution., 173. (b) The Supreme Court has held that hoisting the National flag, atop the Private buildings is a fundamental right of every, citizen under Article 19 (1) (a), of the constitution., 174. (a), List - I, (Articles of the, Constitution), (a), Article 280, , List - II, (Institution), Administrative Tribunals, , (b), , Article 324, , Election Commission of India, , (c), , Article 323, , Finance Commission at Union Level, , (d), , Article 315, , Union Public Service commission, , 175. (d) The tribunal are described in the Part XIV A of the Indian, Constitution from article 323 A to 323 B. Part X deals with, the scheduled and tribal areas from article 244 to article 244, A., 176. (b) Under Article 164 of Constitution of India, the chief minister, is appointed by the governor of a state., 177. (c) Under Article 15 (IV) and 16 (IV), the provision of, reservation for OBC is made in the constitution.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 178. (a) Article 243 (d), provides reservation of seats for the, scheduled castes and scheduled Tribes in the panchayats., 179. (c) The doctrine of Pleasure is embodied in India in Article, 310., 180. (d) Under Article 243 D, the provision of reservation of, Scheduled caste and Scheduled Tribes to panchayat has, been given., 181. (d) In Article 233, the term District Judge has been mentioned, in the Indian Constitution., 182. (b) Censorship of the press is Judged by test of, reasonableness., 183. (c) The mention of the world ‘justice’ in the Preamble to the, Constitution of India expresses social, economic and, political justice., Preamble has been amended only once so far during the, emergency in India, 1976., 184. (c) The term Federal is not used in the Preamble of the Indian, Constitution., 185. (d) Preamble is the philosophical foundation of the Indian, constitution., 186. (d) Economic liberty is not embodied in the Preamble to the, constitution of India., 187. (d) ‘Integrity’ word was not included in the preamble., 188. (d) According to the preamble of the constitution for India it is, given by the people of India to themselves but the rights to, justice, liberty and equality are provided to its citizens., 189. (a) The words ‘SOCIALIST’, ‘SECULAR’ and ‘UNITY’ &, ‘INTEGRITY’ were added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976., 190. (a), 191. (c), 192. (c) Following are the features of Indian secularism:, 1. The state should not have any religion of its, own., 2. All the religions shall be equally protected, by the state.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., 4., , Free exercise of right to freedom of religion., State shall not discriminate against any, particular religion. It means that the state, shall not prefer, favour or disfavour any, particular religion viz-a-viz others., 5. Religious tolerance., 193. (b) Following are the features of Indian secularism:, 1. The state should not have any religion of its, own., 2. All the religions shall be equally protected, by the state., 3. Free exercise of right to freedom of religion., 4. State shall not discriminate against any, particular religion. It means that the state, shall not prefer, favour or disfavour any, particular religion viz-a-viz others., 5. Religious tolerance., 194. (b) The Preamble reads:, •, We, the People of India having solemnly, resolved to constitute India into a, Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic,, Republic and to secure to all its citizens;, •, Justice, social, economic, political;, •, Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship;, •, Equality of status and opportunity; and to, promote among them all;, •, Fraternity, assuring the dignity of the, individual and the unity and integrity of the, nation ;, 195. (a), , 196. (d) Traffic in human beings and beggars and other, similar forms of forced labour are prohibited and, any contravention of this provision shall be an
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , offence punishable in accordance with law . The, terms ‘Socialist’ was added by the 42nd, Amendment and assert that the government must, adopt socialistic policies to ensure decent life for, all Indian citizens. Thus, the word Socialist in the, preamble of the Constitution of India read with, Article23., 197. (b) The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation, because it contains the real objective and philosophy of the, constitution makers., 198. (a) According to the preamble of Indian Constitution, India is a, Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and Democratic republic., Capitalism and free trade is not enshrined in the preamble, of the Indian constitution., 199. (b) Read the preamble given in any school textbook: “We, the, people of India,....LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief,, faith and worship…”So, “B” is the answer., 200. (a) Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent, Assembly, had said ‘The Preamble to our Constitution, expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long.” So “A”, is the answer., 201. (d) ‘Federal’ word is not mentioned in the constitution., 202. (a) another linguistic Provinces committee consisted of, Jawahar Lal Nehru, Sardar Vallahbhai Patel and Pattabhi, Sitaramayya, submitted its report in April 1949 and formally, rejected language as the basis for reorganization of states., 203. (d) These are the new states and Union territories created, after 1956., 204. (c) The constitution of 1950 distinguished between three main, types of states:, The Part A states were ruled by an elected governor and state, legislature., The Part B states were governed by a rajpramukh., The Part C states were governed by a chief commissioner, appointed by the President of India.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , The Part D states were administered by a lieutenant governor, appointed by the central government., 205. (d) The idea of single citizenship is borrowed from British, constitution., 206. (c) Under the citizenship Act 1955, a person can- not be a, citizen of India by Nationalisation., 207. (c) The citizenship act 1955 has been amended in 1986, 1992,, 2003 and 2005., 208. (c) Loss of Citizenship: - Renunciation: It is a voluntary act by, which a person, after requiring the citizenship of another, country, gives up his Indian citizenship. Termination Takes, place by operation of law when an Indian citizen voluntarily, acquires the citizenship of another country. He automatically, ceases to be an Indian citizen. Deprivation It is a, compulsory termination of the citizenship of India obtained, by registration or Naturalisation, by the Government of, India, on charges of using fraudulent means to acquire, citizenship., 209. (c) Generally citizenship is terminated due to possession of, citizenship of any foreign state. The parliament has power, about acquisition and termination of citizenship of a person., 210. (b) Details of Citizenship are mentioned in part ll(Article 5-11), of the constitution., 211. (a) A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but, before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective, of the nationality of his parents, considered citizen of India, by birth if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time, of his birth. The citizenship of India is mentioned in Articles, 5 to 11 (Part II)., 212. (a) Under article 5 of the Indian Constitution Citizenship at the, commencement of the Constitution every person who has, his domicile in the territory of India and, (a) who was born in the territory of India; or, (b) either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or, (c) who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not, less than five years preceding such commencement,
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , shall be a citizen of India., 213. (d) All statements are true. Citizenship is covered in Part II of, the Indian constitution (Articles 5-11)., 214. (c), 215. (b) According to the Constitution of India, the right to equality, does not include absolute equality., ‘Right to Equality’ is the ‘Fundamental Rights’ mentioned in, article 14 to article 18. The following rights are:, Equality before law, Prohibition of discrimination on basis of religion, race, caste,, sex or place of birth., Equal opportunity in employment., Abolition of untouchability and abolition of titles., 216. (c) According to the Constitution of India Freedom of Press, (Article-19) right to life (Article - 21) can’t be taken away, during emergency., Article 19 - Freedom of press, freedom of speech., Article 21 - Right to life., 217. (c) In 42nd amendment, 1976 fundamental duties were added, on the basis of Swaran Singh Committee report. In 1974, 32nd , 33rd and 34th amendments were introduced. In year, 1975 35th to 39th amendments were introduced., 218. (c) Fundamental rights are enforceable rights which means on, violation of these rights you can move to court of law but, directive principles are not enforceable which means on, violation of these you can’t move to court law., 219. (d) Article 32 provides the right of constitutional remedies, which means that a person has right to move to Supreme, Court and High Court for getting his fundamental rights, protected so it is called “soul of the constitution and very, heart of it”. 44th amendment act 1978 under article 300A, provides right of property as legal right., 220. (a) Fundamental duties enshrined in the Indian Constitution do, not have any legal sanction. The Fundamental Duties of, citizens were added to the Constitution by the 42nd, Amendment in 1976.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , It is politicaly approved, socially adopted having moral intentions, towards nation. There is no provision of legal sanction, which abide to follow fundamental duties., 221. (d) Freedom to be elected as a member of Parliament is not, related to fundamental rights, it is a political right. Freedom, of association is the right to join or leave or the right of the, group to take collective action to pursue peruse the, interests of members., 222. (d), 223. (d) Economic equality is not mentioned in fundamental rights., 224. (a) Protection of monuments of national importance is not a, fundamental duty., 225. (b) Freedom of speech under fundamental rights has been, given to Indian citizen only., 226. (c) Freedom of strike is not guaranteed by the constitution, among six fundamental rights., 227. (b) According to the Article 20 of the Indian constitution, though, the Govt. can’t enact any criminal law with the retrospective, effect but it doesn’t prohibit the Govt. to impose any civil or, tax law with the similar effect., 228. (c) The fundamental rights mentioned in the constitution of, India are not permanent in nature and they can be, abolished by the parliament as the Right to property was, abolished. The Forty-Fourth Amendment of 1978 deleted, the right to property from the list of fundamental rights. A, new provision, Article 300-A, was added to the constitution, which provided that “no person shall be deprived of his, property save by authority of law”. Thus if a legislature, makes a law depriving a person of his property, there would, be no obligation on the part of the State to pay anything as, compensation. The aggrieved person shall have no right to, move to the court under Article 32., 229. (a) The rights of equality before the law, protection of life and, personal liberty and freedom of religion are available to both, citizens and non-citizens of India.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 230. (c) Mandamu for “we order,” a writ (more modernly called a, “writ of mandate”) which orders a public agency or, governmental body to perform an act required by law when, it has neglected or refused to do so., A writ of prohibition is a writ directing a subordinate to stop doing, something the law prohibits., 231. (b) The Writ Jurisdiction of Supreme Court can be invoked, under Article 32 of the Constitution for the violation of, fundamental rights guaranteed under Part – III of the, Constitution., 232. (b), 233. (a), 234. (c) Preventive detention, the practice of incarcerating accused, individuals before trial on the assumption that their release, would not be in the best interest of society—specifically, that, they would be likely to commit additional crimes if they were, released., 235. (d) Abolition of Untouchability –Article 17, Abolition of titles- Article 18, Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular, religion -Article 27, Protection of interests of minorities.— Article 29, 236. (a), 237. (b), 238. (a), 239. (c) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide, free and compulsory education of all children in the age, group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in, such a manner as the State may, by law, determine. The, Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE), Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation, envisaged under Article 21-A, means that every child has a, right to full time elementary education of satisfactory and, equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain, essential norms and standards.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 240. (a), 241. (c), , 242. (c) Freedom of the press in India is implied in the right of, Freedom of Expression., 243. (a) Right to information in India is now a fundamental right., 244. (b) The writ Mandamus literally means ‘we command’., Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from, a superior court, to any government subordinate court,, corporation, or public authority—to do (or forbear from, doing) some specific act which that body is obliged under, law to do (or refrain from doing)—and which is in the nature, of public duty., 245. (a), 246. (b) Article 22 of constitution of India No law will authorise the detention of a person for a period more, three months until· An advisory board suggest it., · When a person is detained under order of a court, 247. (a) A Writ of prohibition is issued primarily to prevent an, inferior court from exceeding its jurisdiction, or acting, contrary to the rule of natural justice. The writ lies only, against a body exercising public functions of a judicial or, quasi-judicial character., 248. (c) The Part IV of the Constitution of India provides the, Directive Principle of State Policy. This policy has the, following categories- social justice, economic welfare,, foreign policy, legal and administrative matters., 249. (a) Article 22 of the Constitution of India states that no, protection against arrest and detention is available to, enemy of foreign state or a person detained under, preventive detention law., 250. (d) The Constitution of India provides the freedom of, conscience in the following fields(i) Morality, health, public order, laws for social welfare and reform,, any religious institutions for propagation of their views, and philosophy.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (ii) To defame an offence., 251. (b) Equality before law and protection of life and personal, liberty are available to non citizens by fundamental Rights of, Indian Constitution., 252. (c) Habeas Corpus is a legal remedy to provide relief to, detaines from unlawful imprisonment., 253. (d) Article 26 of the Indian Constitution statesfreedom to, manage religious affairs subject to public order, morality and, health, every religious denomination or any section thereof, shall have the right(a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable, purposes;, (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;, (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and, (d) to administer such property in accordance with law, 254. (d), 255. (c) Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is also available to non citizens., 256. (b) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted, Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and, compulsory education of all children in the age group of six, to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right. This is, recognized in the International Covenant on Economic,, Social and Cultural Rights as a human right that includes, the right to free, compulsory primary education for all., 257. (c) According to Article 32, when an individual feels that he, has been “unduly deprived” of his fundamental rights, he, can move the Supreme Court and seek justice. Apart from, the Supreme Court, the High Courts also have the power to, protect fundamental rights. Like the apex court, they also, can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights of, the citizens. The both courts can issue five different writs Certiorari, Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, and, Quo Warranto., 258. (a) Freedom of speech and expression is restricted on the, ground of :
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , · security of the State,, · friendly relations with foreign States,, · public order,, · decency and morality,, · contempt of court,, · defamation,, · incitement to an offence,, · Sovereignty and integrity of India., 259. (b) If a lower court or tribunal gives its decision but based on, wrong jurisdiction the affected party can move this writ to a, higher court like supreme court or High Court. The writ of, certiorari issued to subordinate judicial or quasi judicial body, when they act., · Without or in excess of jurisdiction, · In violation of the prescribed procedure, · In contravention of principles of natural justice, · Resulting in an error of law apparent on the face of record., 260. (d) The 86th amendment to the Constitution approved in 2002, providing free and compulsory education to all children age, 6 to 14 years has been notified. It included Article 21(a) in, the Indian constitution making education a fundamental, right., 261. (c) Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution safeguard, women and children and others against exploitation of, various forms., Article 23 declares slave trade, prostitution and human trafficking, a punishable offence., Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits employment of, children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like, factories and mines., 262. (c) The Indian Constitution does not recognize property right, as a fundamental right. In the year 1978, the 44th, amendment eliminated the right to acquire, hold and, dispose of property as a fundamental right., 263. (c) The right to information includes, · Any document, manuscript and file
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , ·, ·, , Any microfilm, microfiche and facsimile copy of a document;, Any reproduction of image or images embodied in such microfilm, (whether enlarged or not)., · Any other material produced by a computer or any other device, 264. (b) Habeas corpus writs literally means you should have the, body. It is writ that a person may seek from a court to obtain, immediate release from an unlawful confinement., 265. (a) The writ of Prohibition is an order from a superior court to a, lower court or tribunal directing the judge and the parties to, cease the litigation because the lower court does not have, proper jurisdiction to hear or determine the matters before it., 266. (c) The State shall not make any law which takes away or, abridges the rights conferred by this Part lll and any law, made in contravention of this clause shall, to the extent of, the contravention, be void., 267. (d) The constitution of India does not specifically mention the, freedom of press. Freedom of press is implied from the, Article 19(a), (a) of the Constitution., 268. (a) Members of Armed Forces are not treated at par so far as, the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned., 269. (b), 270. (c) The seven fundamental rights are Right to equality, Right to, freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to freedom of religion,, Cultural and Educational rights, Right to constitutional remedies, and Right to life., 271. (c) Option (c), is the correct answer., 272. (d) The state can make laws which abrogate the right in case, there is a threat to public order, morality and health., 273. (b) The President seeks the opinion of the Election, Commission matters related with disqualification of Member, of Parliament., 274. (d) The fundamental rights to equality before law and right, against exploitation are available to foreign citizen also, if, they reside in the territory of India.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 275. (c) The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral, obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of, patriotism and to uphold the unity of India. These, fundamental Duties were introduced in the Indian, Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976- Article 51A,, upon the recommendations of the Swarn Singh Committee., 276. (a) Freedom of speech and Expression and Equality before, the law are the fundamental rights available to Indian, citizens but not to aliens., 277. (c) The concept of ‘Right of Service’ originated in Great Britain., 278. (c) Prof.DD Basu classifies fundamental right in following, manner:, Right to equality, , Abolition of untouchability. S “2” is wrong in, the classification. This eliminates A and D., , Right against, exploitation, , Prohibition of human trafficking and forced, Labour., Prohibition of employment of children in, factories etc., So 1 and 4 are fitting., , Cultural and, educational rights, , Minorities rights., So 3 is wrong in classification., , So by elimination, we are left with answer 1 and, 4 only., 279. (c) New NCERT,Std. 11, Political Theory Chapter 5: Rights ,, Page 72, • Through these rights, people make demands upon the state., So, “C” is most fitting answer., 280. (d) At present there are no laws for enforcing the the duty to, develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry, and reform or to enforce the fundamental duty to strive, towards excellence. So, first statement wrong., The list of fundamental duties does not cover other important, duties like casting vote, paying taxes, family planning etc., so second statement also wrong.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 281. (a) Rights and duties are correlative and inseparable, hence A, is the answer., 282. (b) The directive principles of state policy are the guidelines, given to the central and state government of India. These, provisions are contained in part IV (Article 36-51) of the, Constitution of India and these are not enforceable by any, court., 283. (a) From Article 36-51. DPSP was borrowed from Irish, constitution., 284. (b) Directive principles of state policy states the responsibility, of the state towards international peace and security., 285. (d) Social and economic democracy is the foundation on which, political democracy would be a way of life in the Indian, polity., 286. (b) The directive Principles commit the state to raise the level, of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public, health by prohibiting other drugs which are injurious to, health., 287. (a) The provision regarding a uniform civil code is contained in, part VI of the constitution., 288. (d), 289. (d), 290. (c), 291. (a) Directive Principles of the state are fundamental in the, governance of country., 292. (a) Protection of monuments of national importance is not, included in the Directive Principle of State Policy., 293. (c) is not a directive principal of state policy., 294. (a), 295. (c), 296. (c), 297. (b) Art. 51A, Part IVA of the Indian Constitution, specifies the, list of fundamental duties of the citizens. It says “it shall be, the duty of every citizen of India:, 1., to abide by the constitution and respect its ideal and, institutions;
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., 3., 4., 5., , 6., 7., , 8., 9., 10., , 298., 299., 300., 301., 302., , 303., , to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired, our national struggle for freedom;, to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and, integrity of India;, to defend the country and render national service, when called upon to do so;, to promote harmony and the spirit of common, brotherhood amongst all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic and regional, diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the, dignity of women;, to value and preserve the rich heritage of our, composite culture;, to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wild-life and to, have compassion for living creatures;, to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the, spirit of inquiry and reform;, to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;, to strive towards excellence in all spheres of, individual and collective activity, so that the nation, constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and, achievement., (d), (d), (d), (d), (c) Though the swaran singh committee suggested the, incorporation of eight fundamental duties in the constitution,, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 included ten, fundamental duties., (b) The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by, the 42nd Amendment in 1976 on the recommendations of, the Swaran Singh Committee. They were Originally ten in
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 304. (d), , 305. (d), , 306. (a), , 307. (c), , 308. (c), , number, but by the 86th Amendment in 2002 they were, increased to eleven., The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines for, creating a social order characterized by social, economic,, and political justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity as, enunciated in the constitution’s preamble. It does not, promise equal income and free healthcare for all Indians., The fundamental duties are defined as the moral, obligations of all citizens to help promote a spirit of, patriotism and too uphold the unity of India. The, Fundamental Duties of citizens were added to the, Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, upon the, recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. The, fundamental duties are contained in Art. 51APart IV(a), ., The fundamental duties however are non-justifiable in, character. This means that no citizen can be punished by a, court for violation of a fundamental duty., The purpose of Directive Principle of State Policy is to lay, down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at, all levels. The Directive Principles of State Policy contained, in Part IV, Articles 36-51 of the Indian constitution. The, Directive Principles may be said to contain the philosophy of, the constitution. The Directive principles are broad, directives given to the state in accordance with which the, legislative and executive powers of the state are to be, exercised., The Forty Second Constitution Amendment Act, 1976 has, incorporated ten Fundamental Duties in Article, 51(a), of the constitution of India. The 86th, Constitution Amendment Act 2002 has added one more, Fundamental Duty in Article 51(a) of the constitution of, India. As a result, there are now 11 Fundamental Duties of, the citizen of India., The National Social Assistance Programme(NSAP), represents a significant step towards the fulfilment of the
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 309., , 310., 311., 312., , 313., , 1., 2., 3., 4., 314., , Directive Principles in Article 41 of the Constitution. It came, into effect from 15th August 1995., (d) To practise family planning and to control population, is not, a fundamental duty of the citizen of India. The Fundamental, Duties of citizens were added to the Constitution by the, 42nd Amendment in 1976. Originally ten in number, the, Fundamental Duties were increased to eleven by the 86th, Amendment in 2002, which added a duty on every parent or, guardian to ensure that their child or ward was provided, opportunities for education between the ages of six and, fourteen years., (c) One of the fundamental duties is to “defend the country and, render national service when called upon to do so.”, (d) To render compulsory military service is not a fundamental, duty of the Indian Citizens., (c) Article 51(a), Part IV(a) of the Indian Constitution,, specifies the list of fundamental duties of the citizens., According to it “to promote the educational and economic, interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially, the Scheduled castes and Scheduled Tribes” and “To, protect all monuments of historic interests and national, importance” are not fundamental duties., (b) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new, Directive Principles to the original list. They require the, State:, To secure opportunities for healthy development of, children (Article 39)., To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to, the poor (Article 39 A)., To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the, management of industries (Article 43 A)., To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard, forests and wild life (Article 48 A)., (d) The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes, the ideals that the State should keep in mind while
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the, constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State, in legislative, executive and administrative matters. Noted, constitutional author Granville Austin considers DPSP as, “positive obligations” of the state.So, all of above points that, answer “D” neither 1 nor 2., 315. (d) First proclamation of emergency under article 352 (national, emergency) was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China War), 1971, (Indo-Pak War), 1975 (by Indira Gandhi) were made, under article 352., 316. (b) There are three types of emergencies which have been, envisaged under the Indian constitution. The President can, declare three types of emergencies:, National emergency under Article 352, State emergency under Article 356, Financial emergency under Article 360, 317. (c) According to Article 360, (1) If the President is satisfied that, a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit, of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened,, he may by a Proclamation make a declaration to that effect., 334 (2) A Proclamation issued under clause (1), (a) may be revoked or varied by a subsequent Proclamation;, (b) shall be laid before each House of Parliament;, (c) shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months,, unless before the expiration of that period it has been, approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament., 318. (c) According to Article 352, the President shall not issue a, Proclamation under clause (1) or a Proclamation varying, such Proclamation unless the decision of the Union Cabinet, (that is to say, the Council consisting of the Prime Minister, and other Ministers of Cabinet rank appointed under article, 75) that such a Proclamation issued has been, communicated to him in writing. Every Proclamation issued, under this article shall be laid before each House of, Parliament and shall, except where it is a Proclamation, revoking a previous Proclamation, cease to operate at the
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , expiration of one month unless before the expiration of that, period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses, of Parliament: Provided that if any such Proclamation (not, being a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation) is, issued at a time when the House of the People has been, dissolved, or the dissolution of the House of the People, takes place during the period of one month referred to in, this clause., 319. (d) A state of emergency in India refers to a period of, governance under an altered constitutional setup that can, be proclaimed by the President of India, when he/she, perceives grave threats to the nation from internal and, external sources or from financial situations of crisis., Every Proclamation shall be laid before each House of, Parliament and shall, except where it is a Proclamation, revoking a previous Proclamation, cease to operate at the, expiration of two months unless before the expiration of that, period it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses, of Parliament: Provided that if any such Proclamation (not, being a Proclamation revoking a previous Proclamation) is, issued at a time when the House of the People is dissolved, or the dissolution of the House of the People takes place, during the period of two months referred to in this clause., 320. (d) Article 360 deals with provision of financial emergency and, it never been declared in India., 321. (b) The time limit for the ratification of an emergency period by, Parliament is 1 month., 322. (a) Proclamation of emergency must be replaced withing 1, month before the parliament for its approval., 323. (c) While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, this, period may be extended by Parliament by law for a period, not exceeding one year at a time.Under Article 352 the, president can declare a national emergency when the, security of India or part of it is threatened by war or external, aggression or armed rebellion.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 324. (b) National emergency under article 352, emergency can be, declared on the basis of external aggression or armed, rebellion in the whole of India or a part of its territory. Such, an emergency was declared in India in 1962 (Indo-China, war), 1971 (Indo-Pakistan war), and 1975 (declared by, Indira Gandhi)., 325. (d) Article 352 of the Indian Constitution mentions the National, Emergency in India can be declared by . Tthe President can, declare such an emergency only on the basis of a written, request by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime, Minister., 326. (d) Under the condition of Financial Emergency, Central, Government can acquire control over the budget and, expenditure of states and salaries of the Judges of the High, Courts and Supreme Court can be reduced., 327. (d) Internal disturbance substituted by the words ‘armed, rebellion’ under the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. So, it is, not the ground for proclamation of Emergency under the, Constitution of India., 328. (b) MIND IT: you’ve to find the wrong statements here- they’re, the right answers., •, when the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the, President dismisses the state council of ministers, headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on, behalf of the President, carries on the state, administration with the help of the chief secretary of the, state or the advisors appointed by the President., Meaning “2” is definitely the consequence of, proclamation. Hence all options involving “2” are wrong., Hence by elimination we are left with answer “B”: 1 and, 3 only., 329. (b) Criminal matters is a subject of the concurrent list., 330. (c) The state of Jammu & Kashmir of Indian Federation has a, separate constitution. Article 370 of the Indian Constitution,, which is of a temporary nature, grants special status to, Jammu and Kashmir.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Limited government in which governmental intervention in, personal liberties and the economy is not allowed by law, usually in a written constitution e.g. India, USA etc., 331. (b) Article 371 B makes special provision for Assam., Article 371 A for Nagaland, Article 371 C for Manipur state, Article 371 for state of Maharashtra & Gujarat., 332. (a) Criminal procedure code is not included in the state list., 333. (a), 334. (b) Stock exchange and future markets are listed in the Union, list, but not in the concurrent list., 335. (d), 336. (d) Part IV (Directive Principles of the State Policy) and Part, IVA (Fundamental Duties) of the Constitution are not, applicable to J&K. In addition to other fundamental rights,, Articles 19(1)(f) and 31(2) of the Constitution are still, applicable to J&K; hence the Fundamental Right to property, is still guaranteed in this state., 337. (d) According to the Constitution notwithstanding anything in, the foregoing provisions of article 370, the President may,, by public notification, declare that this article shall cease to, be operative or shall be operative only with such exceptions, and modifications and from such date as he may specify:, Provided that the recommendation of the Constituent Assembly, of the State referred to in clause (2) shall be necessary, before the President issues such a notification., 338. (d) On 15 February, 1954 the assembly members who were, present cast a unanimous vote ratifying the J&K’s accession, to India. Constitution was drafted which came into force on, 26 January 1957. Part II, section (3) of the constitution, states ‘The State of Jammu and Kashmir is and shall be an, integral part of the Union of India’. In 1956 the Constituent, Assembly finalised its constitution, which declared the, whole of the former Princely State of Jammu and Kashmir, to be ‘an integral part of the Union of India’. Elections were, held the next year for a Legislative Assembly. This section
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , cannot be legally amended as per provisions of Part XII of, the constitution., 339. (b) Education lies in the concurrent list. Education, includes, technical education, medical education and universities,, subject to the provisions of Entries 63, 64, 65 and 66 of List, I., 340. (d) Sarkaria Commission was set up to review the relations, between the Union and the States. Sarkaria Commission, was set up in June 1983 by the central government of India., 341. (c), 342. (d) The term `Scheduled Areas has been defined in the Indian, Constitution as “such areas as the President may by order, declare to be Scheduled Areas”., 343. (b) Service taxation is an example of residuary powers in India., 344. (c) Article 371A deals with theSpecial provision with respect to, the State of Nagaland., 345. (a) Stock Exchange is the subject of union list., 346. (c) The Inter-State Council was established under Article 263, of the Constitution of India through a Presidential Order, dated 28 May 1990. As the article 263 makes it clear that, the Inter-State Council is not a permanent constitutional, body for coordination between the States of the Union. It, can be established ‘at any time’ if it appears to the, President that the public interests would be served by the, establishment of such a Council. The Council is a, recommendatory body. The Council shall consist of Prime, Minister (Chairman), Chief Ministers of all States and union, territories (Member), Administrators (UT) and Six Ministers, of Cabinet rank to be nominated by the Prime Minister, (Member).This is not a standing committee., 347. (d) As per Gadgil formula a special category state gets, preferential treatment in federal assistance and tax breaks., The special-category states get significant excise duty, concessions and thus help these states attract large, number of industrial units to establish manufacturing, facilities within their territory. 90% of the central assistance
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , is treated as grant and remaining 10% is considered as loan, unlike other states which get 30% grant and 70% loan., 348. (b) The State list contains 66 subjects of local or state, importance. The state governments have the authority to, make laws on these subjects. These subjects include, police, local governments, trade, commerce and agriculture., Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with, respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List, or State List., Note: Residuary Power retained by a governmental authority, after certain powers have been delegated to other, authorities., 349. (c), 350. (d) Centre state relation in India are dependent upon., Constitutional provisions, conventions and practice. Judicial, interpretation and Mechanism for dialogue., 351. (b) Federalism is the mixed or compound mode of, government, combining a general government with regional, governments in a single political system., 352. (b), List - I, List - II, (a), Union List, (1) 97 entries, (b), State List, (2) 66 entries, (c), Concurrent List, (3) 47 entries, 353. (d) Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among, the states unlike the American federation. So, “D” is not the, feature of Indian federalism.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Election Commission, 1., (a), (b), (c), (d), 2., , Which of the following is not a constitutional authority?, State Election Commission, State Finance Commission, Zila Panchayat, State Electoral Officer, Which one among the following commissions was set up in, pursuance of a definite provision under an Article of the, Constitution of India?, (a) University Grants Commission, (b) National Human Rights Commission, (c) Election Commission, (d) Central Vigilance Commission, 3. What is the tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India?, (a) Five years, (b) During the ‘pleasure’ of the President, (c) Six years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier, (d) Five years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier, 4. Consider the following statements regarding state election, commission, 1. The state election commission is appointed by the Governors of, the respective states., 2. State election commission conducts election to the panchayats, only, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 5. Consider the following functions of State Election Commission, and select correct answer by using code given below, 1. Prepares the electoral rolls for Panchayats and Municipalities, elections in the State., 2. Conducts elections for Panchayat and Municipalities of the State., 3. Conducts elections to various bodies except Panchayats and, Municipalities as directed by the Governor., 4. Prepares the electoral rolls and conducts elections as assigned, by Election Commission of India., Codes:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 3 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) Only 4, 6. Who among the following determines the authority who shall, readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states, and, division, of, each, State, into, territorial, constituencies?, [NDA 2007-II], (a) The President of India, (b) The Parliament of India, (c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India, (d) The Lok Sabha alone, 7. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a, period of, [NDA 2012-I], (a) six years, (b) during the pleasure of the President, (c) for 6 years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, (d) for 5 years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier, 8. Delimitation, of, constituencies, and, determination, of, constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled, Tribes are done by, [NDA 2012-II], (a) Election Commission, (b) Delimitation Commission, (c) Planning Commission
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Election Commission with the assistance of Delimitation, Commission, 9. Consider the following statements about State Election, Commission ?, [NDA 2014-II], 1. The State Election Commissioner shall be appointed by the, Governor of the State., 2. The State Election Commission shall have the power of even, preparing the electoral rolls besides the power of, superintendence, direction and control of election to the, panchayats., 3. The State Election Commissioner cannot be removed in any, manner from his office until he demits himself or completes, his tenure., Which of the above statements is/are correct?, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1 and 2 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1 only, 10. The power to decide the date of an election to a State, Legislative Assembly rests with the [NDA 2015-I], (a) President of India, (b) Chief Minister and his/her Cabinet, (c) Election Commission of India, (d) Parliament, 11., The Election Commissioner can be removed by the, [UP-PCS 2014], (a) Chief Election Commissioner, (b) Prime Minister, (c) President on the recommendation of the chief Election, Commissioner, (d) Chief Justice of India, 12., Who recognises he political parties in India?, (a) President of India, (b) Election Commission of India, (c) Ministry of Law and Justice, (d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 13., Consider the following statements:, 1., The Election Commission of India is a five-member body., 2., Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for, the conduct of both general elections and by-elections., 3., Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to, splits/mergers of recognized political parties., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 3 only, , Comptroller & Auditor General(CAG), 14. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was, created, (a) Through an act of the parliament, (b) By the Constitution, (c) Through a cabinet resolution, (d) None of the above, 15. Consider the following statements :, 1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has no control over, the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India., 2. The term of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of, India has been fixed by an Act enacted by Parliament., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 16. Which of the following statements regarding the Comptroller and, Auditor General of India is / are true?, The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India:, 1. Can be considered by the joint session of both Houses of, Parliament, 2. Includes examination of income and expenditure of all public, sector undertaking
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., , Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the comments of the, Estimates Committee, 4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by the Public Accounts, Committee of the Parliament, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2 and 4, (d) Only 4, 17. Consider the following statements :, The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has to:, 1. Audit government expenditure, 2. Make financial policy, 3. Sanction grants to various departments, 4. See that public expenditure are in conformity with the, government rules, Of these statements :, (a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, (b) 1 and 3 are correct, (c) 2 and 3 are correct, (d) 1 and 4 are correct, 18. Who among the following can only be removed from the office in, like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme, Court?, 1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, 2. Chief Election Commissioner, 3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission, 4. Attorney General for India, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 4 only, (c) 1 and 2 only, (d) 2 and 3 only, 19. The provision of the Act relating to the duties of the Comptroller, and Auditor-General of India are to audit and report on all the, expenditure form which of the following?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1. Consolidated Fund of India, 2. Consolidated Fund of each State, 3. Contingency Fund of India, 4. Public Account of India, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 3 and 4 only, 20. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the, President. He can be removed, (a) by the President, (b) on an address from both Houses of Parliament, (c) on the recommendation of the President by the Supreme Court, (d) by CJI, 21. What is the Terms of the Comptroller and Auditor General of, India?, (a) 6 years, (b) upto 65 years of age, (c) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever earlier, (d) upto 64 years of age, 22. Who is called the Guardian of public purse?, (a) President, (b) Comptroller and Auditor-General, (c) Parliament, (d) Council of Ministers, 23. Which of the following statement about Comptroller and Auditor, General of India (CAG) are correct?, (CDS 2016-I), 1. The CAG will hold office for a period of six years from the date he, assumes the office, He shall vacate office on attaining the, age of 65 years, if earlier than the expiry of the 6 years term, 2. The powers of CAG are derived from the Constitution of India, 3. The CAG is a multi-member body appointed by the President of, India in constitution with the prime Minister and the Council, of Ministers
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 4., , The CAG may be removed by the President only on an address, from both Houses of Parliament, on the grounds of proved, misbehavior or incapacity, Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 1 and 2 only, 24. Consider the following statements with respect to the, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, [NDA 2010-I], 1. He shall only be removed from office in like manner and on the, ground as a Judge of the Supreme Court., 2. He shall not be eligible for further office either under the, Government of India or under the Government of any State, after he has ceased to hold his office., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 25. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and, Auditor General in India is/are correct?, [NDA 2014-I], 1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the, President., 2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly, answerable to the House., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 26. Which of the following statements relating to the comptroller and, Auditor General (CAG) of India is/are correct?, [NDA/NA 2016-I]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , The CAG can attend the sittings of the Committee on Public, Accounts., 2. The CAG can attend the sittings of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha., 3. The jurisdiction of CAG is co-extensive with powers of the Union, Governement., Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 2 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 27. The office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India was, created, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) through an Act of the Parliament, (b) by the Constitution, (c) through a Cabinet Resolution, (d) none of the above, 28. The comptroller and Auditor General of India –, (a) Can be appointed as a member of UPSC after his retirement, (b) Can be appointed as the Chairman of State Public Service, commission, (c) Is not eligible for any further office either under the Central, government or the state government after his retirement, (d) Can be appointed to any office after his retirement, , Union Public Service Commission & SPSC, 29., (a), (b), (c), (d), 30., , Who is the highest civil servant of the Union Government?, Attorney General, Cabinet Secretary, Home Secretary, Principal Secretary of the P.M., A member of UPSC may be removed on the ground of, misbehaviour by, (a) Both the Houses of Parliament by way of impeachment, (b) The President on the basis of enquiry by the Supreme Court., (c) A resolution passed by the Rajya sabha by 2/3 majority of, members present and voting.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) The PM on the basis of the recommendation of the cabinet, 31. Consider the following statements:, 1. The first Public Service Commission in India was set up in the, year 1926, on the recommendation of the Lee Commission, on the Superior Civil Services in India., 2. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for setting up of, public service commissions at both the federal and, provincial levels., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 32. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion(a) : The All-India Services violate the federal, principal of the Constitution as well as the, autonomy of States., Reason (R) : The All-India Service officers are governed by, Central Government rules and the State, Government do not have full control over them., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 33. Which of the following are the functions of the Union Public, Service Commission?, 1. To conduct examinations for recruitment to the services of the, Union., 2. To advise on matters referred to it by the President or the, Governor., 3. To advise on all disciplinary matters affecting a government, servant.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 4., , To advise on the principles to be followed in respect of, promotions and transfers., Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 34. Consider the following statements :, A member of the Union Public Service Commission is :, 1. Debarred from re-appointment as a member, 2. Ineligible for any other employment under the Central or State, Government, 3. Disqualified from becoming a constitutional functionary like a, Governor, Of the above statements :, (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, (b) 2 and 3 are correct, (c) 1 and 3 are correct, (d) 1 and 2 are correct, 35. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : The Union Public Service Commission must be, consulted as regards the reservation of posts for, Backward classes, Scheduled Castes and, Scheduled Tribes., Reason (R) : The functions of the Union Public Service, Commission are only advisory and the, Government need not act upon the advice of the, Commission in any case., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 36. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : No qualifications have been prescribed for the, membership of the Union Public Service, Commission., Reason (R) : The Constitutions does not fix the number of, members of the Union Public Service, Commission., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : UPSC is an independent organisation., Reason (R) : UPSC is a constitutional body., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 38. Consider the following statements :, A member of the Union Public Service Commission, 1. Is appointed by the President of India., 2. Is ineligible for re-appointment to that office., 3. Holds office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 60 years,, whichever is earlier., Of the above statements :, (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, (b) 1 and 2 are correct, (c) 2 and 3 are correct
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 1 and 3 are correct, 39. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : being chairman of UPSC, one cannot become a, member of Central or State legislature., Reason (R) : He is completely debarred from any future, employment under the Central or State, Government after retirement., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 40. Assertion (a) The number of the Members of the Union Public, Service Commission is preserved in the Constitution of India., Reason (R) The Union Public Service Commission was constituted, under the provisions in the Constitution of India., Codes:, [NDA 2007-II], (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A, (c) A is true, but R is false, (d) A is false, but R is true, 41. Consider the following statements [NDA 2008-II], 1. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are appointed by, the President., 2. The Chairman and the Members of the UPSC are eligible for, further employment under the Government., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 42., Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?, [UP-PCS 2013]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 43., (a), (b), (c), (d), 44., (a), (b), (c), (d), , Union Public Service Commission, State Public Service Commission, Finance Commission, Planning Commission, Who was the first Chairman of the Uttarakhand Public Service, Commission?, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], N. P. Navani, S. K. Das, Lt. Gen. G.S. Negi, Lt. Gen. M. C. BhandarI, Who was the first President of India to make use of ‘Pocket, Veto’?, [UGC-II 2016], Zakir Hussain, Sanjeeva Reddy, R. Venkatraman, Gyani Zail Singh, , Finance Commission, 45. The Constitution of India authorizes the parliament to determine, the qualifications of members of the Finance Commission of, India and the manner in which they should be selected. In this, regard consider the following statements :, 1. The commission consists of five members including its, chairperson., 2. Its chairperson necessarily should be an economist., 3. Its members are appointed from different fields such as finance, and accounts, administration, judicial etc., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 46. The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to, (a) Distribute revenue between the centre and the state., (b) Advise the president on financial matters, (c) Advise the president on financial matters.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and state, Governments., 47. Which one of the following authorities recommends the, principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues to the, states out of the consolidated fund of India?, (a) Finance Commission, (b) Inter-State-Council, (c) Union Ministry of Finance, (d) Public Accounts Committee, 48. On which of the following matters, does the Finance, Commission make recommendations to the President of India?, 1. The distribution between Union and States of net proceeds of, taxes and allocation between the States of their respective, share, of such proceeds., 2. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the, revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of, India., Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 49. Consider the following statements with regard to the Finance, Commission:, 1. The recommendations of the Finance Commission cover a, period of five years., 2. The Report of the Finance Commission is submitted to the Prime, Minister., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 50. Which one of the following expenditure is not charged on the, consolidated fund of India?, (a) Salary and allowances of the President of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Salary and allowances of the Vice President of India, (c) Salary and allowances of the Justice of the Supreme Court of, India, (d) Salary and allowances of the speaker of the Lok Sabha, 51. Recommendations to the President of India on the specific, Union state fiscal relation are made by the, (a) Finance Minister, (b) Reserve Bank of India, (c) Planning Commission, (d) Finance Commission, 52. Consider the following statement :, The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, comprises:, 1. Pension payable to Judges of High Court, 2. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable, 3. Salary, allowances and pension payable to Comptroller and, Auditor General of India, Which of the statements given above are correct ?, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1 and 2 only, 53. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : The Finance Commission prescribes the framework, for the working of the Planning Commission., Reason (R) : The jurisdiction and functions of the Finance, Commission are outlined in the Constitution of, India., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, List-II, (Finance Commission) (Chairman), A., First Finance, 1. P.V. Rajamannar, Commission, B., Fourth Finance, 2. K.C. Neogy, Commission, C. Sixth Finance, 3. Y.B. Chavan, Commission, D. Eighth Finance, 4. Brahamananda Reddy, Commission, Codes :, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 2, , 1, , 4, , 3, , (b), , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , (c), , 2, , 3, , 4, , 1, , (d), 4, 1, 2, 3, 55. The principles concerning the provisions of the grant-in-aid to, the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India are, recommended by the :, (a) Planning Commission, (b) Administrative Reforms Commission, (c) Finance Commission, (d) Public Accounts Committee, 56. Consider the following statements about the Finance, Commission:, 1. The duty of the Finance Commission is to make, recommendations as to the distribution of revenue, resources between the Union and the States., 2. It is appointed every fifth year by the President of India, 3. It raises revenue for central financial transfers to the States.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 4., , It borrows money form the market for central grants to the, States., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 1 only, (d) 2 and 4, 57. Financial distribution between the Union and the State takes, place on the basis of the recommendations of which one of the, following?, [NDA 2008-I], (a) The National Development Council, (b) The Inter-State Council, (c) The Planning Commission, (d) The Finance Commission, 58., Which among the following functions as a coordinate between, the, Planning, Commission, and, State, Governments?, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) National Integration Council, (b) Finance Commission, (c) National Development Council, (d) None of the above, 59., Consider the following qualifications with respect to the finance, commission : or one, 1. A judge of High Court or one qualified to be the appointed as, one., 2. A persons who has a specialised knowledge of finance and, accounts of the government., 3. A person who has wide experience in financial matters and in, administration., 4. A person who has special knowledge of economics., Who among the above can appointed as the member of the finance, commission?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 3 and 4 only, (c) 2, 3 and 4 only, (d) All of the above
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 60. Consider the following statements –, The state government shall appoint a finance commission to review, the financial positions of the Panchayats and to make, recommendations as to –, 1. The distribution between the state and Panchayats of the net, proceeds of taxes tolls and fees leviable by the states., 2. The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may, be assigned to the Panchayats, 3. The principles that will determine grants-is-aid to the panchayats., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1,2 and 3, 61. Consider the following bodies of India., 1. The National Commission for scheduled castes, 2. The National Commission for women, 3. The National Commission for Backward classes, 4. The National Human Rights Commission, Which of the bodies given above is/are established by the constitution, of India?, (a) 1 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, , Other Commissions & Miscellaneous, 62., , 1., , The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was, constituted, under, the, Constitution, (Eighty-ninth, Amendment) Act., 2. The first National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was, constituted in 2006., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 63. The Twentieth Law Commission was constituted through a, government order with effect from 1st Sep. 2012. It has a three, year term ending on 31st Aug. 2015. Who is the chairman of the, commission?, [NDA 2017], (a) Justice D.K. Jain, (b) Justice J.S. Verma, (c) Justice Markanday Katju, (d) Justice M. Mualyal, 64. Consider the following statements regarding law commission of, India:, 1. Recently, the 20th law commission was constituted under the, chairmanship of D.K. Jain, 2. The commission is constituted for a period of five years, 3. Codification of the penal code, and the Criminal Procedure Code, were recommended by the law commission constituted, under charter Act of 1833., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 4 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1,3 and 4 only, 65., The Planning Commission has been abolished by the Prime, Minister, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Narendra Modi, (b) Morarji Desai, (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee, (d) I. K. Gujral, 66. The tenure of the Chairman of the National Human Rights, Commission is –, [MP-PSC 2017], (a) 3 years, (b) 4 years, (c) 5 years, (d) 6 years, , Attorney General & Advocate General
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 67., (a), (b), (c), (d), 68., , Who is the first Law Officer of the Government of India?, Chief Justice of India, Union Law Minister, Attorney General of India, Law Secretary, Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure of the, President?, (a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission, (b) Attorney General of India, (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha, (d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India, 69. Who among the following can attend the meetings of both, Houses of Parliament while being not a member of either of the, Houses?, (a) Solicitor-General of India, (b) Vice-President of India, (c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, (d) Attorney General of India, 70. Who advises the Government of India on legal matters?, (a) Attorney General, (b) Chief justice of Supreme Court, (c) Chairman, Law Commission, (d) None of these, 71. Consider the following statements:, 1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President upon, the recommendation of the Chief Justice of Supreme Court., 2. The Attorney General of India has the right to speak in the, Parliament but he can’t vote., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 72. Consider the following statements about the attorney general of, India:, 1. He is appointed by the President of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , He must have the same qualifications as required for a judge of, the Supreme Court, 3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament, 4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament, Which of these statements are correct?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 3 and 4, 73. Consider the following statements:, 1. The Advocate General of a state in India is appointed by the, President of India upon the recommendation of the, Governor of the concerned state., 2. As provided in Civil procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction at the state level, Which of the following statements is/are correct?, (a) 1 Only, (b) 2 Only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 74. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of, India?, [NDA 2007-II], 1. He is appointed by the President of India, 2. He has the right to take part in the proceeding of the Parliament., 3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) All of these, 75. Consider the following statements with respect to the Attorney, General of India, [NDA 2009-I], 1. He is appointed by the President., 2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a Judge, of High Court.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., , In the performance of his duties he shall have the right of, audience in all courts of India., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 76., Which one of the following has the right to address the, Parliament?, [UP-PCS 2011], (a) Atorney General of India, (b) Chief Election Commissioner of India, (c) Chief Justice of India, (d) National Security Advisor, 77., Which officer of the Government of india has the right to take, part in the proceedings of Parliament of India even though he is, not a member?, [BPSC 2017], (a) Vice - President, (b) Attorney General of India, (c) Comptroller and Auditor General, (d) Election Commissioner, 78. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the, Attorney General of India?, 1. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a Judge, of a High court, to be the Attorney General of India., 2. He has the right to audience in all the Courts of the country., 3. He has the right to take part in the Proceedings of the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha., 4. He has a fixed tenure., Select the correct answer from the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 4, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 3 only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., , 7., 8., , 9., , (d) State Electoral officer is not a constitutional authority., (c) University Grants commission, N.H.R.C. and C.V.C are, non-constitutional bodies, whereas election commission is a, constitutional body under Article 324., (c) The tenure of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is, six years or till the age of 65 year whichever is earlier., (a) The state Election Commission is the constitutional body, responsible for conducting and supervising elections to the, local bodies in the state., (a), (b) According to article 82 of Indian Constitution, the parliament, of India shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok, Sabha to the states and division of each state into territorial, constituencies., (c) The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for a term of, six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever, is earlier., (b) Delimitation commission of India is a Commission, established by Government of India under the provisions of, the Delimitation Commission Act. In India, such Delimitation, Commissions have been constituted 4 times - in 1952 under, the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, in 1963 under, Delimitation Commission Act, 1962, in 1973 under, Delimitation Act, 1972 and in 2002 under Delimitation Act,, 2002. The main task of the commission is to redraw the, boundaries of the various assemblyand Lok Sabha, constituencies based on a recent census. The, representation from each state is not changed during this, exercise. However, the number of SC and ST seats in a, state ischanged in accordance with the census., (b) Three Election Commissioners in the each State shall be, appointed by the Governor of the respective State from a, penal of five names for each office forwarded by the, Election Commission of Bharatto the provision of the
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 10., 11., 12., 13., , 14., 15., , 16., , Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act, 1992 and the, Constitution (Seventy-fourth Amendment) Act, 1992,, whereunder the constitution of State Election Commissions, and appointment of State Election Commissioners are, contemplated to superintend, direct and control the, preparation of the electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. Election, Commissioner of a State can be removed by the Full Bench, of State Judicial Commission on the basis of enquiry and, investigation made by a judicial committee constituted for, the purpose, consisting of two Chief Justices and one Judge, from different High Courts., (c) The power to decide the date of an election a state, legislative assembly rests with the election commission of, India., (c) Election Commissioner/s can be removed by the President, of India on the recommendation of the Chief Election, Commissioner, (b) Election Commission of India recognises the political, parties in the India., (d) Election Commission has three election Commissioners., So first statement is wrong., Election Commission decides the election schedule for the, conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. So, second statement is wrong.It also decides the disputes, relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. So, third statement is right., Hence answer “D” only 3., (b) CAG of India was created by the constitution of India., (Article 148-151), (c) He audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the, consolidated fund of India., He holds office for a period of 6 years or up to the age of 65, years whichever is earlier., (c) The CAG submits three audit report to the president- audit, report on appropriation accounts, audit report on financial
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 17., 18., 19., 20., , 21., 22., , 23., 24., , 25., , accounts and audit report on public undertakings. The, president lays these reports before both the Houses of, parliament. After this the public accounts committee, examines them and reports its findings to the parliament., (d) The work of CAG does not include making of financial, policy and sanctioning grants to various departments., (c), (a) CAG audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the, Consolidated Fund, Consolidated Fund of each state,, Contingency Fund of India and Public Accounts of India., (b) The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed on, an address from both Houses of Parliament. The, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an, authority, established by the Constitution of India under, Chapter V., (c) CAG of India holds office for 6 years or 65 years of age,, which ever earlier., (b) The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an, independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General, of India (CAG). He controls the entire financial system of the, country at the Centre and the State., (a), (c) Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution the Comptroller, and Auditor General (CAG) of India is an authority who, audits all receipts and expenditure of the Government of, India and the state governments, including those of bodies, and authorities substantially financed by the government., The CAG shall only be removed from office in like manner, and on the like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court of, India :Article148(a), The Comptroller and Auditor General shall not be eligible for, further office either under the Government of India or under, the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold, his office :Article 148(d), (b) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is appointed, by the President of India. CAG is an authority that was
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , established by the Constitution of India under article 148., Report of CAG of Union Accounts to be submitted to, President who causes them to be laid before each house of, parliament., 26., 27., 28., , 29., , 30., , 31., , 32., , (a), (b) Article 148 of the Constitution of India provides for an, independent office to the Comptroller and Auditor General, (CAG) of India. CAG is appointed by President of India., (c) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is not eligible, for any further office either under the central government or, state government after his retirement current CAG of India –, Rajiv Mehrishi., (b) Cabinet Secretary is the highest civil servant of the Union, Government. The Cabinet Secretary is the senior-most civil, servant in the Government of India. Cabinet Secretary has, been less than 3 years. His or her tenure however, can be, extended., (b) According to Article 317 of the constitution of India, the, chairman or any other member of a PSC shall be removed, from his office by the order of the president with reference, to the supreme court on reference being made to it by the, President, has, on inquiry, held in accordance with the, procedure prescribed in that behalf under Article 145,, reported that the Chairman or such other member, as the, case may be, ought on any such ground to be removed., (c) The first Public Service Commission was set up on October, 1st, 1926. However, its limited advisory functions failed to, satisfy the people’s aspirations and the continued stress on, this aspect by the leaders of our freedom movement, resulted in the setting up of the Federal Public Service, Commission under the Government of India Act 1935., Under this Act, for the first time, provision was also made, for the formation of Public Service Commissions at the, provincial level., (a) Though the all India Services violate the principle of, federalism under the constitution by restricting the
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 33., , 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 34., 35., 36., 37., 38., 39., 40., , autonomy and patronage of the states. They are supported, on the ground that (i) they help in maintaining high standard, of administration in the centre as well as in the states (ii), they help to ensure uniformity of the administrative system, throughout the country; and (iii) they facilitate liaison,, cooperation, coordination and joint action on the issue of, common interest between the Centre and States., These services are controlled jointly by the centre and the states., The ultimate control lies with the central government while, the immediate control vests with the state governments., (c) The Union Public Service Commission has been, established under Article 315 of the Constitution of India., The Commission consists of a Chairman and ten Members., The Union Public Service Commission has been entrusted with, the following duties and roles under the Constitution:, Recruitment to services & posts under the Union through, conduct of competitive examinations;, Recruitment to services & posts under the Central Government, by Selection through Interviews;, Advising on the suitability of officers for appointment on, promotion as well as transfer-on-deputation;, Advising the Government on all matters relating to methods of, Recruitment to various services and posts;, Disciplinary cases relating to different civil services; and, Miscellaneous matters relating to grant of extra ordinary, pensions, reimbursement of legal expenses etc., (d), (d), (b), (a), (b) A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds, office for a period of 6 years or till the age of 65 years,, whichever is earlier., (d), (d) A is false because the constitution without specifying the, strength of the Commission has left the matter to the
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 41., , (a), , 42., , (d), , 43., , (a), , 44., , (d), , 45., , (c), , 46., , (c), , 47., , (a), , 48., 49., , (c), (a), , discretion of the president, who determines its composition., According to article 315, the UPSC consists of a chairman, and other members appointed by the president of India., Articles 315 to 323 of Part XIV of the constitution provide for, a Public Service Commission for the Union and for each, state., According to Article 316(a) of the Indian Constitution, the, chairman and the members of the UPSC are appointed by, the president. Under Article 316(c) a person who holds, office as a member of a Public Service Commission shall,, on the expiration of his term of office, be ineligible for reappointment to that office., Planning Commission was an Executive body (created by, an Executive order and the rest are constitutional bodies, created by the provisions of Constitution). ., N.P. Navani was the first chairman of the Uttarakhand, Public Service Commission., President Zail Singh introduced ‘Pocket veto’ in India,, when he kept on pending on his table the controversial, Postal Bill in 1986,. Even as the Rajiv Gandhi government, spared no efforts to bring the law into force, opposition, leaders called on Zail Singh to withhold, his assent., The chairperson of the finance commission of India should, be a person having experience in public affairs but there is, no such compulsion that he should be an economist., The finance commission can only advise the president on, financial matters such as distribution of the net proceeds of, taxes between the Union and the states., Finance commission recommends the president on the, principle that should govern the grants-in-aid to the states, by the centre., •, , Article 280 of the constitution of India provides for a, finance Commission as a quasi judicial body. It is
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , •, , 50., 51., 52., , 53., 54., , 55., 56., 57., , constituted by the president of India every fifth year or, at such earlier time as he considers necessary., The Finance Commission is required to make recommendations, to the president of India on the following matters two of, them are as follows :, The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared, between the centre and the states, and the allocation, between the states of the respective shares of such, proceeds., • The principles that should govern the grants in aid to, the states by the Centre (i.e. out of consolidated fund of, India), (d) Salary and allowances of the speakers of the Lok Sabha is, not charged on the consolidated fund of India., (d) The finance commission made recommendations to the, president of India on the specific union state fiscal relation., (a) Article 112 mentions the expenditure charged on, consolidated fund of India comprises, the salaries and, allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of, the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy, Speaker of the House of the People, debt charges for which, the Government of India is liable, the salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to or in respect of Judges of the, Supreme Court, the pensions payable to or in respect of, Judges of the Federal Court, the pensions payable to or in, respect of Judges of any High Court., (d), (a) First Finance Commission – K.C. Neogy, Fourth Finance Commission – P.V. Rajamannar, Sixth Finance Commission – Brahamananda Reddy, Eighth Finance Commission– Y.B. Chavan, (c), (a), (d) The Finance Commission is constituted by the President, under article 280 of the Constitution, mainly to give its, recommendations on distribution of tax revenues between
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 58., 59., 1., 2., 3., 60., 1., 2., 3., 61., , 62., 63., 64., 65., , the Union and the States and amongst the States, themselves., (c) National Development Council co-ordinates between Union, government, the Planning Commission and the State, governments., (d) Finance Commission of India includes, A Judge of High Court or one qualified to be appointed as one., A person who has a special Knowledge of Finance and accounts, of the government., A person who has wide experience in financial matter and in, administration., (d) The state government shall appoint a finance commission, to review the financial positions of the panchayats and to, make recommendations as to., The distribution between the State and Panchayats of the net, proceeds of taxes tolls and fees leviable by the states., The determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may, be assigned to the Panchayats., The principles that will determine grants–in–aid to the, panchayats., (a) The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is, established by the Article 388 of the constitution of India, whereas rest are established by acts of the parliament., National Commission for Scheduled Castes is an Indian, constitutional body established with a view to provide, safeguards against the exploitation of Scheduled Castes, and to promote and protect their social, educational,, economic and cultural interests, special provisions were, made in the Constitution., (a), (a) Justice D K Jain is appointed the chairman of the Twentieth, Law commission., (c) The law commission of India is constituted for the period of, three years. It is a statutory body., (a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi abolished the Planning, Commission and replaced it with National Institution for
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 66., , (c), , 67., , (c), , 68., , (b), , 69., , (d), , 70., , (a), , 71., , (b), , 72., , (a), , 73., , (d), , 74., , (d), , 75., , (b), , Transforming India or NITI Aayog., The National Human Rights Commission of India is an, autonomous public body constituted on 12 October, 1993, under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28, September, 1993. The Chair Person and members of, NHRC are appointed by the President of India., Attorney General of India is the first law officer of the, Government of India., The term of Office of the AG is not fixed by the constitution., Further the Constitution does not contain the procedure and, grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure, of the president., He has the right to speak and to take part in the, proceedings of both houses of parliament or their joint, sitting., Attorney general of India, appointed by President, advises, the government of India on legal matters. Presently, Venugopal is an Attorney General of India., The proposal for appointment of Law officers viz. Attorney, General, Solicitor General, is sent to the Appointments, committee of the cabinet for its approval. On the, recommendation of cabinet the president appoints Attorney, General., Article 76 of the constitution says about Attorney General of, India. The president shall appoint a person who is qualified, the same as a judge of the Supreme Court., Article 165, Advocate-General for the state. The governor, of each state shall appoint a person who is qualified to be, appointed a judge of a High court to be advocate General, for the state., Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of, India under Article 76(a), of the Constitution and holds, office during the pleasure of the President., The Attorney General of India is the chief legal advisor of, Indian government. He is appointed by the President of, Indiaunder Article 76(a) of the Constitution. He must be a
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 76., 77., 78., , person qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme, Court. The Attorney General has the right of audience in all, Courts in India as well as the right to participate in the, proceedings of the Parliament. He holds office during the, pleasure of the President. The current Attorney General is, Mukul Rohatgi(14th Attorney General)., (a) Attorney general of India may speak in Parliament and can, take part in proceedings without having right to vote., (b) Attorney General of India has the right to take part in the, proceedings of parliament of India even though he is not a, member., (a) The president appoints a person, who is qualified to be a, Judge of a Supreme Court, to be the Attorney General of, India and holds office during the pleasure of President.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Union Legislature, ., , 1 Any amendment in the Constitution of India, in regard to which of, , the following subjects, needs only simple majority of the, parliament?, [CDS-2017], 1. Directive principles of state policy., 2. Election of the President and its manner, 3. Quorum in the Parliament, 4. Creation of the Legislative Council in a State, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 1 and 4 only, . 2 Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional, amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislature, of not less than one half of the states?, 1. Election of the president, 2. Representation of the states in parliament, 3. Any of the lists in the 7th schedule, 4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State., (a) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 1, 2 and 4 only, (c) 1, 3 and 4 only, (d) 2, 3 and 4 only, . 3 Which of the following are/is stated in the Constitution of India?, 1. The President shall not be a member of either House of, Parliament.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , The Parliament shall consist of the President and two, Houses., Choose the correct answer from the codes give below:, (a) 1 only, (b) Both 1and 2, (c) 2 only, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, . 4 The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of, India for implementing international treaties?, (a) With the consent of all the states, (b) With the consent of majority of states, (c) With the consent of state concerned, (d) Without the consent of any state., . 5 In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the, administration?, (a) Through Parliamentary Committee, (b) Through Consultative Committee of various ministers, (c) By making the administration send periodic reports, (d) By compelling the executives to issue writs, 6. Consider the following statements regarding Constitutional, Amendments., 1. In Article 368, two methods of Constitutional Amendment are, mentioned., 2. Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated only in Lok, Sabha., 3. In case of any dispute between two Houses of Parliament on, Constitutional Amendment Bill, Joint sitting of both houses, can be summoned., 4. The President cannot veto a Constitutional Amendment Bill., Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 3 only, (b) 1 and 4 only, (c) 2 and 4 only, (d) 2, 3 and 4 only, 7. The States of the Indian Union can be reorganised or their, boundaries altered by:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) The Union Parliament by a simple majority in the ordinary, process of legislation., (b) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament., (c) Two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament and the, consent of the legislature of the concerned States., (d) An executive order of the Union Government with the consent of, the concerned State Governments., 8. Consider the following statements:, 1. A Constitutional amendment inserting a regulation in the Ninth, Schedule can be challenged on the ground of violation of, basic structure of the Constitution., 2. Any legislation enacted by Parliament cannot be successfully, challenged for affecting the basic structure of the, Constiution., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 9. Consider the following statements :, [NDA-2017], 1. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the, introduction of a Bill only in the Lok Sabha., 2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India has to be, passed in each House by a majority of the total membership, of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of, the members of that House Present and voting., Which of the statements given above is / are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 10. Which of the following are matters on which the Parliament has, the power to modify provisions of the Constitution by a simple, majority ?, 1. Alternation of names, boundaries and areas of States., 2. Appointment of additional judges
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State Legislature, 4. Administration of Scheduled Areas, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 11. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : By amendment, Parliament cannot destroy the, basic features of the Constitution., Reason (R) : The power to amend does not include the power, to abrogate the Constitution., Codes:, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A., (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A., (c) A is true but R is false., (d) A is false but R is true., 12. Consider the following statements :, 1. There was a special provision for the Anglo-Indian community in, certain services., 2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of, Atrocities) Act was passed in 1955., 3. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, was renamed as the, Protection of Civil Rights Act., Which of the statements given above are correct ?, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 1 and 3, 13. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance bill sent for its consideration, by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of, (a) One month, (b) One Year
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Seven days, (d) Fourteen days, 14. In which of the following houses the chairperson is not the, member of that house?, (a) Lok Sabha, (b) Rajya Sabha, (c) Legislative Assembly, (d) Legislative council, 15. Who amongst the following is not entitled to take part in the, activities of Lok Sabha?, (a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India, (b) The Attorney General of India, (c) The Solicitor General, (d) The Secretary to President of India, 16. The state wise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on the, 1971 census. Up to which year does this remain intact?, (a) 2031, (b) 2026, (c) 2021, (d) 2011, 17. How many members are nominated by the president in the, Rajya Sabha, (a) 2, (b) 10, (c) 12, (d) 15, 18. A bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after, (a) It is passed by both the Houses., (b) The president has given his assent, (c) The Prime Minister has signed it, (d) The Supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence, of the Union Parliament, 19. According to our Constitution, the Rajya Sabha, (a) is dissolved once in two years., (b) is dissolved every five years., (c) is dissolved every six years.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) is not subject of dissolution, 20. As a non-member who can participate in the proceedings of, either House of Parliament, (a) Vice President, (b) Chief Justice, (c) Attorney General, (d) Chief Election Commissioner, 21. In which house is the presiding officer not a member of that, house?, (a) Lok Sabha, (b) Rajya Sabha, (c) Vidhan-Sabha, (d) Vidhan parishad, 22. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of, India is not correct?, (a) The Constitution provides for a parliamentary form of, government, (b) The foremost function of the parliament is to provide a cabinet, (c) The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the lower house, (d) The cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the, popular chamber, 23. The first speaker against whom a motion of non-confidence was, moved in the Lok Sabha was, (a) Balram Jakhar, (b) G.V. Mavalankar, (c) Hukum Singh, (d) K.S. Hegde, 24. Indian Parliament consists of, (a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, (b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister, (c) Speaker and Lok Sabha, (d) President and both the Houses, 25. Money bill is introduced in, (a) Lok Sabha, (b) Rajya Sabha, (c) Joint sitting of both the Houses
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d), 26., (a), (b), (c), (d), 27., (a), (b), (c), (d), 28., (a), (b), (c), (d), 29., , None of the above, The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list, by the wish of the president, if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution, under any circumstances, by asking the legislature of the concerned state, The function of the pro-tem in the absence of Speaker is to, conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of, speakers., officiate as speaker when the speaker is to be elected, only check if the election certificates of the members are in order, None of the above, Which of the following is the most appropriate tool to raise the, issue of Naxalism activities in the Lok Sabha?, Calling attention motion, Discussion under Rule 377, Censure motion, Short duration discussion, What is the maximum time interval permissible between two, successive sessions of the parliament?, , [NDA-2017], , (b), (c), (d), 30., (a), , (a) 4 months, 5 months, 6 months, 3 months, Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha?, The President
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 31., (a), (b), (c), (d), 32., (a), (b), (c), (d), 33., (a), (b), (c), (d), 34., (a), (b), (c), (d), 35., (a), (b), (c), (d), 36., (a), (b), (c), (d), , The Vice-President, The Prime Minister, The Speaker, Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?, The Chairman of Rajya Sabha, The President, The joint session of Parliament, None of these, The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called, Casting vote, Sound vote, Direct vote, Indirect vote, The chairman of the Lok Sabha is designated as, Chairman, Speaker, Vice President, President, Who decides whether a Bill is a money Bill or not?, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, The President, The Prime Minister, The Parliamentary Select Committee, In order to be recognised as an official opposition group in the, Parliament, 1/3rd of the total strength, 1/4th of the total strength, 1/6th of the total strength, 1/10th of the total strength, Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok Sabha in the, case of, Money bills, Non-money bills, Setting up of new All India Services, Amendment of the Constitution
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 37. The speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by, addressing his resignation to, (a) The President, (b) The Prime Minister, (c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, (d) The Chief Justice of India, 38. The bill of which of the following categories can be initiated only, in Lok Sabha?, (a) ordinary Bill, (b) Private members Bill, (c) Money Bill, (d) Constitution Amendment Bill, 39. Which of the following appointments is not made by the, President of India?, (a) Speakers of the Lok Sabha, (b) Chief Justice of India, (c) Chief of Air Staff, (d) Chief of Army, 40. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that, (a) It is the Union Legislature in India, (b) It also comprises of the President, (c) It is bicameral in nature, (d) The Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved, 41. The allocation of seats in the present Lok Sabha is based on, which one of the following census?, (a) 1971, (b) 1981, (c) 1991, (d) 2001, 42. Who among the following was not elected for two terms as the, Speaker of Lok Sabha?, (a) G.M.C. Balayogi, (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy, (c) Balram Jakhar, (d) Baliram Bhagat, 43. ‘Zero Hour’ in political jargon refers to, [CDS-2017]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 44., (a), (b), (c), (d), 45., (a), (b), (c), (d), 46., (a), (b), (c), (d), 47., (a), (b), (c), (d), 48., (a), (b), (c), , Suspended motion, Question hour, Adjourned time, Question-answer session, What is the term of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?, Three years, Four years, Five years, Six years, Which among the following was NOT constituted as per, mandate of Constitution of India?, Election Commission, NITI Aayog, Finance Commission, Inter State Council, In terms of Parliamentary terminology, What do we call a rule of, legislative procedure under which a further debate on a motion, can be stopped?, Closure, Gullitone, Expunction, Recess, The Government Bill means a bill introduced by a, Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha, Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister, Minister in the Lok Sabha, Minister in any House of the Parliament., When an ordinary Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the, Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by a, simple majority of the total number of members of both the, Houses present and voting, two-third majority of the total number of members of both the, Houses, simple majority of the total number of members of both the, Houses
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) two-third majority of the total number of members of both the, Houses present and voting, 49. Joint Parliamentary Sessions in India are chaired by the, (a) President of India, (b) Vice-President of India who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, (c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha, (d) Prime Minister of India, 50. The members of the Lok Sabha from the Union Territories of, India are:, (a) Nominated by the President, (b) Elected by the members of local bodies of the Union Territories., (c) Chosen by direct election, (d) Chosen by direct election in Puducherry whereas nominated by, the president in other territories., 51. The first reading of the Bill in a House of Parliament refers to, :, [CDS-2017], (a) The motion for leave to introduce a Bill in the House, (b) The general discussion on the Bill as whole where only the, principle underlying the Bill is discussed and not the details, of the bill., (c) The general discussion on the Bill where the bill is discussed in, details., (d) The state when the Bill is referred either to select committee of, the House or to the joint committee of the two houses., 52. Consider the following statements :, 1. Ministers are liable for the official acts done by the President or, the governor on their advice., 2. The ministers can be sued for crimes as well as torts in ordinary, courts like common citizen., Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 53. Which of the following Bills requires prior assent of the, President before presenting in the Parliament?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., 2., 3., , A Bill for the formation of boundaries of a state, A money Bill, A Bill which involved expenditures from the consolidated fund of, India, 4. A Bill affecting taxation in which the interest of states is vested, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 54. Though the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha are constitutent part of, Parliament, on some subject they have unequal powers which of, the following matters depict the difference of powers between, these two houses?, 1. No confidence motion, 2. Power to vote on Demand for Grants, 3. Impeachment of judges of the High Court, 4. Passing of laws in the national interest on the subject, enumerated in state list, 5. Creation of all India services., Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 3 and 4 only, (b) 2, 3 and 5 only, (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only, (d) 1, 2 and 5 only, 55. Which among the following have the right to vote in the, elections to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha?, 1. Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament, 2. Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament, 3. Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature., 4. Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature., (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 4 only, 56. The speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking, and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 57., (a), (b), (c), (d), 58., (a), (b), (c), (d), 59., (a), (b), (c), (d), 60., 1., 2., , Decorum, Crossing the floor, Interpolation, Yielding the floor, The term of the Lok Sabha, Can’t be extended under any circumstances, Can be extended by six months at a time, Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation, of emergency, Can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation, of emergency, Which one of the following statements is correct?, Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have, nominated members, There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members, belonging to the Anglo-Indian Community to the Rajya, Sabha., There is no constitutional bar for nominated members to be, appointed as a Union Minister, A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice, Presidential elections, Which of the following statements is not correct?, In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds, on which it is based., In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no, conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the rules., A motion of no-confidence once admitted has to be taken up, within ten days of leave being granted., Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of noconfidence., Consider the following statements:, The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be, in national interest for the parliament to legislate with, respect to a matter in the state list., Resolutions approving the proclamation of emergency are, passed only by the Lok Sabha.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Which of the statements given is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither1 nor 2, 61. Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House, of the Indian parliament separately, by special majority., (a) ordinary Bill, (b) Money Bill, (c) Finance Bill, (d) Constitution Amendment Bill, 62. Consider the following statements regarding ‘No confidence, motion’, 1. Only a motion expressing want of confidence in the council of, ministers as a whole is admitted and one expressing lack of, confidence in an individual minister is out of order, 2. A no confidence motion needs to set out grounds on which it is, based., 3. Any no confidence motion once moved can’t be withdrawn, 4. Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no, confidence, Which of the following given above are not correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 2, and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 63. In both the Houses of Parliament under the automotive vote, recorder system each member casts his vote from the seat, allotted to him. Consider the following:, 1. Green button represents AYES, 2. Red button represents ABSTAIN, 3. Black button represent NOES, Which of the above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 1 and 2 only, (c) 2 and 3 only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 1 and 3 only, 64. Which of the following is/are correct regarding effect of motions, or, resolutions, adopted, by, the, Houses, of, Parliament?, [NDA-2017], 1. The resolution expressing merely an opinion of the Houses is not, binding on the government., 2. The resolutions adopted by the Houses on matters concerning, its own proceeding are not binding., 3. Resolutions having a statutory effect, if adopted, are binding on, the government., (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1 and 3 only, 65. When the House of people clearly and conclusively determines, that the government does not command its support, the, government has to resign. By which of the ways parliamentary, confidence in the government may be expressed by the House, of People?, 1. Defeating the government on a major issue of policy., 2. Passing an adjournment motion, 3. Defeating the government on finance issues, 4. Passing a motion of no confidence in the council of ministers., (a) 1 and 3 only, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 66. Consider the following statements related to women members, of 15th Lok Sabha, 1. They are less than 10% of the total members of the Lok Sabha., 2. The maximum women members are from Indian National, Congress., 3. Three women members are elected from Rajasthan., 4. The maximum women members are elected from Uttar Pradesh., Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?, (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 67., , 1, 3 and 4 only, 2, 3 and 4 only, 1, 2 and 4 only, Which of the following statements are correct about Indian, Government?, 1. Rajya Sabha represents the local interests of the States., 2. A member of Rajya Sabha must be a resident of the State from, which he is elected., 3. Number of seats allotted to a State has to be proportionate to its, population., 4. The term of a member of Rajya Sabha is same as that of, Senator in the US., Codes:, (a) 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 1 and 2, 68. Consider the following statements :, 1. For the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter, enumerated in the State List, a resolution must be passed in, both the Houses of the Parliament., 2. A resolution passed as stated above can be extended beyond, one year., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 69. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) :, The President of India can return any bill, passed by Parliament of reconsideration of the, Houses., Reason (R) : The President cannot return money bills to the, Parliament for reconsideration of the Houses., Codes :
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 70. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) :, The President is part of the Parliament., Reason (R) : A bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament, cannot become law without the assent of the, President., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A., (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A., (c) A is true but R is false., (d) A is false but R is true., 71. Consider the following statement :, 1. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by, the Lok Sabha shall lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha., 2. A bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of the, propogation of the Houses., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 72. Consider the following statement :, 1. The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House, of the People, or person acting as such, shall not vote at, any sitting of either House of Parliament or joint sitting of, the House in the first instance, but shall have and exercise, a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , A person is qualified to fill a seat in the Council of States or, House of the People if he is not less than twenty-five years, of age., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 73. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of, the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok, Sabha:, 1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the, Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send, to every member notice of this date., 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as, the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send, to every member notice of this date., Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 74. Consider the following statements :, 1. The nature of a Bill, if it is certified by the Speaker of the House, of People as a Money Bill, is not open to question in a Court, of Law., 2. The President of India has the power to question the nature of a, Bill to be taken as a Money Bill even if it is certified to be so, by the Speaker of the House of People., Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 75. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , State, , No. of members in, the Rajya Sabha, , (a), , Maharashtra, , –, , 19, , (b), , Tamil Nadu, , –, , 18, , (c), , Bihar, , –, , 18 – 16, , (d), West Bengal, –, 16, 76. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : After a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and, transmitted, to, the, Rajya, Sabha,, the, recommendations of the Rajya Sabha have to be, accepted by the Lok Sabha within 14 days from, receipt of the recommendations and then get them, incorporated in the Bill., Reason (R) : A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya, Sabha., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 77. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : Money bills originate only in the Lower House of, Parliament., Reason (R) : The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly, elected body., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 78. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’, discussion?, [NDA-2017], 1. It is not directed against individual Minister., 2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 79. Which of the following regarding the Rajya Sabha are correct?, 1. It is not subject to dissolution., 2. It has a term of six years., 3. One-third of its members retire after every two years., 4. Its members shall not be less than 25 year of age., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 2 and 4, 80. Who is responsible to make changes in names and boundaries, of the states?, (a) Prime Minister, (b) Parliament, (c) Rajya Sabha, (d) Governor, 81. Govt. decided to add four new tribes, Abuj Maria, Korba, Hill, Korba and Kodaku into the list of scheduled tribes. Which of the, following is/are correct in regard to granting the status of, scheduled tribe to a tribe?, 1. President has the authority to include or exclude a tribe from the, list of schedule tribes., 2. The criterion for a community to be recognized as scheduled, tribe is not spelled out in the constitution, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 82., , 1 only, 2 only, Both 1 and 2, Neither 1 nor 2, A Member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to, continue as a Member of the House if the Member, (CDS 2016-I), (a) voluntarily gives up his / her membership of the political party, from which he /she was elected, (b) is expelled by the political party from which he / she had been, elected to the House, (c) Joins a political party after being elected as an independent, candidate, (d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his / her political, party, 83. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is /, are correct ?, (CDS 2016-I), 1. The maximum Permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250, 2. In Rajya Sabha, 238 members are elected indirectly from the, States ans Union Territories., 3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters, such as creation of All India Services, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1 only, 84. A Bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it has any provisions, dealing with, (CDS 2015-II), 1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax, 2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, 3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, 4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 3 and 4
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2 only, 85. After the general elections, the Protem Speaker is, (CDS 2015-II), (a) elected by the Lok Sabha, (b) appointed by the President of India, (c) appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, (d) the senior most member of the Lok Sabha, 86. Which one of the following statements about the process of the, Parliament to make new States is not correct?, (CDS 2015-II), (a) The Parliament may by law form a new State and alter the, boundaries or names of existing States., (b) A Bill to this effect cannot be introduced in the Parliament except, on the recommendation of the President., (c) A Bill to this effect may be referred by the President to the, Legislature of the affected State., (d) Such a law will fall under the purview of Article 368., 87. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-I], 1. A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States., 2. The Council of States cannot reject a Money Bill nor amend it., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 88. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-II], 1. The Annual Appropriation Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha in the, same manner as any other Bill., 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an, introduction of a Bill in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 89. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok, Sabha?, [NDA 2009-I], (a) M A Ayyangar, (b) G V Mavalankar, (c) Sardar Hukam Singh, (d) N Sanjiva Reddy, 90. The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is, [NDA 2009-II], (a) One- twelveth of the total number of members of the House, (b) One-sixth of the total numbers of members of the House, (c) One-tenth of the total number of members of the House, (d) Two-third of the total number of members of the House, 91. Identify the correct sequence of passing a Budget in the, Parliament, [NDA 2009-II], (a) Vote on Account, Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill Discussion on, Budget, (b) Finance Bill, Appropriation Bill, Discussion on Budget, Vote on, Accounts, (c) Discussion on Budget, Vote on Account, Finance Bill,, Appropriation Bill, (d) Discussion on Budget, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on, Account, 92. The function of a Protem Speaker is to [NDA 2009-II], (a) conduct the proceeding of the House in the absence of the, Speaker, (b) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is to be elected, (c) swear members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected, (d) scrutinize the authenticity of the election certificates of members, 93. Consider the following statements [NDA 2010-I], 1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed, among the States on the basis of the population and the, area of the State., 2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the, freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the, 42nd Amendment., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 94., (a), (b), (c), (d), 95., (a), (b), (c), (d), 96., , (a), (b), (c), (d), 97., , Only 1, Only 2, Both 1 and 2, Neither 1 nor 2, With reference to the conduct of government business in the, Parliament, of, India,, the, term, ‘closure’, refers, to, [NDA 2012-I], suspension of debate at the terminatan of a day’s sitting of the, Parliament, a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a, motion can be halted, the termination of a Parliamentary session, refusal on the part of tie Government to have the opposition look, at important documents, With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one, among the following statements is not correct? [2012-I], A money bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha, The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a, money bill, The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement, The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for, Grants, Suppose a Legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing, certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling,, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth, Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one, among, the, following, statements, is, correct?, [2012-I], The legislation is invalid as it violates the Freedom of Press, The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31 B, The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions, under Article 19 (2) of the Constitution, The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Article, 19 of the Constitution, In the Rajya Sabha, the states have been given seats, [2012-II]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 98., , in accordance with their population, equally, on the basis of population and economic position, on the basis of present economic status, The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office, by, [2012-II], (a) the majority party in the house adopting a no-confidence motion, (b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total membership, of the house, (c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total membership, of the house, (d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the house, 99. Consider the following statements relating to the procedure of, the election of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok, Sabha, [NDA 2012-II], 1. The election of a Speaker shall be held on such date as the, Prime Minister may fix and the Secretary General shall send, to every member . notice of this date., 2. The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as, the Speaker may fix and the Secretary General shall send, to every member notice of this date., 3. At anytime before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed,, any member may give notice in writing of a motion that, another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the, House., Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?, (a) 2 and 3, (b) Only 2, (c) 1 and 3, (d) All of these, 100. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a, deliberative body with diverse functions. [NDA 2013-I], Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of, India?, (a) Ventilating the grievances of the people, (b) Executing major policy decisions
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Holding the government accountable for its actions and, expenditure, (d) Amending the Constitution, 101. Which of the following statements is not correct?, [NDA 2013-II], (a) A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States, (b) The Council of States has no power to reject or amend a Money, Bill, (c) the Council of Ministers is responsible to the House of the People, and not to the Council of States, (d) The House of the People has special powers with respect to the, State List compared to the Council of States, 102. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the, Parliament, [NDA 2014-I], 1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government., 2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its, duties in accordance with the Constitution., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 103. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the, Lok Sabha is/are correct?, [NDA 2014-I], 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent, position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in, 1950., 2. He/She is elected from amongst the members., 3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the, House., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2 and 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 104. After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it, is presented to the President who may either give assent to the, Bill or with hold his assent. The President may, [NDA 2014-I], (a) assent within six months, (b) assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible, (c) return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to, him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the, Bill, (d) with hold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the, Houses, 105. Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration, by the Speaker while recognising a parliamentary party or, group?[NDA 2014-I], 1. An association of members who have an organisation both inside, and outside the House, 2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of, the total number of members of the House, 3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of, parliamentary work, Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) Onfy 1, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 2 and 3, 106. There are provisions in the Constitution of India which empower, the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain, provisions of the Constitution without actually amending, them., [NDA 2014-I], They include, 1. any law made under Article 2 (relating to admission or, establishment of new states), 2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new states), 3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule, Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) 2 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) None of these, 107. Which of the following statements in the context of structure of, the Parliament is/are correct? [NDA 2014-I], 1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of, States and the House of the People., 2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college, consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the, Parliament only., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 108. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making, laws, [NDA 2014-I], 1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List., 2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State, Legislatures consider it desirable, 3. for implementing any treaty agreement or convention with any, country even if it falls in the State List., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 2, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 1 and 3, (d) All of these, 109. Which one of the following statements regarding the, Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the, empowerment of women is correct? [NDA 2014-I], (a) The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only, (b) A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees, (c) The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not, exceed two years, (d) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 110. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint, Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India?, [NDA 2014-I], 1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take, steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses., 2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to, meet in a join sitting., 3. It is being notified by the President., 4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok, Sabha., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) 3 and 4, 111. Certain Bills can not be introduced or proceeded with unless the, recommendation of the President is received. However, no, recommendation is required in some other cases. In which one, of the following cases such recommendation is not, required?, [NDA 2014-I], (a) For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to, financial matters, (b) For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new states or of, alternation of areas of existing states, (c) For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction, or abolition of any tax, (d) For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting, taxation in which states are interested, 112. When martial law is imposed, Parliament cannot make law in, respect of which one of following matters ?, [NDA 2015-I], (a) Indemnify any person in respect of any act done by him in, connection with the maintenance of order in the area where, martial law was in force, (b) Parliament can by law validate any sentence passed when, martial law was in force in the area
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) A law of Parliament can validate forfeiture ordered when martial, law was in force in the area, (d) Any act done under martial law can be validated by Parliament by, law, 113. Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is, correct ?, [NDA/NA-2016-II], (a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it Provides for, imposition of fines or penalties, (b) A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha, (c) The Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill., (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill,, should any dispute about it arise, 114. Joint sittings of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held, to, [NDA/NA 2014-II], (a) elect the President of India, (b) elect the Vice President of India, (c) adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill, (d) consider and pass a Bill on which the two Houses disagree, 115. The Union Parliament can also legislate on a subject of State, List., [UP-PCS 2009], 1., to give effect to international agreement., 2., with the consent of the State concerned., 3., during President’s rule in the State., 4. in the national interest, when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution, to this effect by a 2/3rd majority., Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, Codes:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) All the four, 116. The cardinal features of political system in India are, [UP-PCS 2009], 1., It is a democratic republic., 2., It has a Parliamentary form of government., 3., The Supreme Power vests in the people of India.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 4., It provides for a unified authority., Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, Codes:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) All the four, 117. The Provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted, the scope of which of the following?, [UP-PCS 2010], (a) Short duration discussion, (b) Question hour, (c) Adjournment motion, (d) Zero hour, 118. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of, India is NOT correct? [UP-PCS 2011], (a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of, Government, (b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet, (c) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House, (d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the, popular Chamber., 119. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the State list, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) by the wish of the President, (b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution, (c) under any circumstances, (d) by asking the legislature of the concerned state, 120. No money bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly of, the, a, State,, except, on, the, recommendations, of, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) the Parliament, (b) the Governor of the State, (c) the president of India, (d) a Special Committee of Ministers
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 121., , Which of the following are correct about the Rajya, Sabha?, [UP-PCS 2014], 1., It is not subject to dissolution, 2., It has a term of five years, 3., One third of its members retire after every two year, 4., Its member shall not be less then 25 years of age, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, Codes :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 2 and 4, 122. Who nominates the Chairman of the Public Accounts, Committee of Indian Parliament?, [UP-PCS 2014], (a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha, (b) The Prime Minister, (c) The President, (d) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha, 123. Who among the following was the member of Lok Sabha, during his Prime Ministership?, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Deva Gowda, (b) I.K.Gujral, (c) Chandrasheker, (d) Dr. Manmohan Singh, 124. Who among the following was the first Tribal speaker of Lok, Sabha?, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) G. V. Mavalankar, (b) G. M. C. Balayogi, (c) Manohar Joshi, (d) P. A. Sangma, 125. Which of the following is/are the common feature(s) between, the Indian political system and the US political, system?, [UGC 2016], (a) Residuary powers belong to the centre., (b) Residuary powers are with the states., (c) Presidents have the power of pocket veto.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Upper houses have some nominated members., Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) (a), (c) and (d), (b) (b), (c) and (d), (c) (c) and (d), (d) C only, 126. Which of the following Houses has had the longest speeches, by the members?, [UGC 2016], (a) House of Lords, (b) Lok Sabha, (c) US Senate, (d) Swiss Council of States, 127. Which one of the following is the correct breakup of the, composition of Lok Sabha Constituencies? [UGC 2016], (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , 545, , 543, , 543, , 545, , General Constituencies 423, , 423, , 425, , 427, , Schedule Caste, Constituencies, , 79, , 78, , 79, , Total Constituencies, , 80, , Constituencies, 42, 41, 40, 39, 128. Consider the following statements and select the correct, answer from the codes given below :, [UGC 2016], I. Subject to legislation by Parliament, the power to declare any, area as a ‘Scheduled area ‘ is given to the President., II. The 5th Schedule of the Constitution deals with administration of, ‘Scheduled Areas’ in Assam, Meghalaya and Tripura., III. The Government of the states having ‘Scheduled Areas’ have to, submit reports to the President regarding the administration, of such ‘Areas’., IV. The executive power of the Union Shall extend to giving, directions to the respective states regarding administration, of the ‘Scheduled Areas’., Which of the above statements are correct?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Codes :, (a) Only I and III, (b) Only I and IV, (c) Only I and II, (d) Only II and III, 129. Which one of the following is correctly matched about the, outcome of the XVI Lok Sabha elections? [UGC 2016], (a) National Democratic Alliance — 336 seats and 35 percent vote, share., (b) United Progressive Alliance — 54 seats and 23 per cent vote, share., (c) Left Front — 10 seats and 4.8 per cent vote share., (d) Congress — 44 seats and 17 per cent vote share., 130. The number of Rajya Sabha members from Uttarakhand is, –, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], (a) one, (b) two, (c) three, (d) five, 131. Which of the following may be considered a Pressure, Group?, [MP-PSC 2017], (a) Members of the Lok Sabha, (b) Member of a Panchayat, (c) Members of the cabinet, (d) Members of a trade union, 132. Consider the following statements –, 1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be, in the national interest for the Parliament to legislate with, respect to a matter in the state list., 2. Resolutions approving in the Proclamation of Emergency are, passed only by the Lok Sabha., Which of the statements, given above is / are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 133., 1., 2., 3., 4., Who, , Consider the following —, Elected members of the Lok Sabha., Nominated members of Lok sabha., Elected members of Rajya Sabha., Nominated members of Rajya Sabha., among the above complete the electoral collect of the Vicepresident?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 3 and 4, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) All of the above, 134. A seat of a M. P. can be declared vacant if he absents himself, from the house for a continuous period of –, [BPSC 2017], (a) Six month, (b) Two month, (c) Three months, (d) None of the above / More than one of the above, 135. The privileges enjoyed by members of a parliament are:, I., Freedom from arrest with certain riders., II. Exemption from attendance as jurors and witnesses., III. Freedom of Speech., (a) Only III, (b) I and III, (c) I and II, (d) I, II and III, 136. The purpose of an adjournment motion is to –, [UGC-II 2016], (a) seek the leave of the House to introduce a bill, (b) censure the Government, (c) propose a reduction in the budget, (d) Draw the attention of the House to a matter of urgent public, importance, 137. Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom from, arrest in –, (a) Criminal Cases
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Civil Cases, (c) Preventive detention, (d) All types of cases, 138. How many members of Lok Sabha are elected from, Uttarakhand?, [UK-PSC 2016], (a) 4, (b) 5, (c) 6, (d) 7, 139. Who among the following doesn’t take oath of the office?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], (a) President, (b) Vice President, (c) Prime minister, (d) Speaker, 140. The Tenure of which Lok Sabha was about 6 years?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], (a) 5th Lok Sabha, (b) 7th Lok Sabha, (c) 9th Lok Sabha, (d) 11th Lok Sabha, 141. Sitting of Lok Sabha can be terminated by ........ of the house., (a) Adjournment since die, (b) Prorogation, (c) Dissolution, (d) All of the above, 142. Who declare the Rajya Sabha adjourned sine die?, (a) President of India, (b) Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, (c) Speaker of the Lok sabha, (d) Union Cabinet, 143. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of, the Council of Ministers through., 1., Adjournment motion, 2., Question hour, 3., Supplementary questions
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 144. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the, following statements:, 1., A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Memberof, Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the, President of India., 2., Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the, Parliament of India for the first time in its history., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, , Union Executive, 145. The form of oath of office for a minister for the union of India is, enshrined in the, (a) first schedule, (b) second schedule, (c) third schedule, (d) fourth schedule, 146. The Constitution of India vests the executive powers of the, Indian Union in which of the following ?, (a) The prime minister, (b) The president, (c) The council of ministers, (d) The parliament, 147. The President can be impeached on the grounds of violating the, Constitution by, (a) The Chief Justice of India, (b) The Vice-President of India, (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) The two Houses of Parliament, 148. All the executive powers in Indian Constitution are vested with, (a) Prime Minister, (b) Council of Ministers, (c) President, (d) Parliament, 149. Before entering upon his office the President of India has to, make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation. In this oath or, affirmation he swears:, 1. To faithfully execute the office, 2. To preserve, protect and defend the constitution and the law, 3. To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of, India., Which one of the contents of the oath or affirmation given above is, correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 150. The President of India has no power to, 1. Proclaim a financial emergency in the state, 2. Proclaim the future of the constitutional machinery in the state., Which of the statement(s) given above regarding the special, constitutional status of Jammu and Kashmir is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 151. Consider the following statements :, When a president is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution,, no change can be preferred by either House of Parliament, unless, 1. A resolution containing proposal is moved after seven days, notice in writing signed by not less than one fourth of total, number of members of that house.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , The resolution is passed by the majority of not less than 2/3 rd of, the total membership of that house., Which of the statement given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 152. Consider the following statement :, 1. On the expiry of the term of five years by the President of India,, the outgoing President must continue to hold office until his, successor enters upon his office., 2. The Electoral College for the President’s election consists of the, elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and, Puducherry also., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 153. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below:, List-I, (Power of President), , List-II, (Relevant, Provision), 1., Article 76, 2., Article 75, , A., B., , Power to grant pardon, Executive power of the, Union, C. Power to appoint Prime 3., Minister, D. Appointment of Attorney- 4., General, Codes :, (a), , A, , B, , C, , D, , 4, , 2, , 3, , 1, , Article 53, Article 72
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , (c), , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , (d), 1, 3, 2, 4, 154. Which of the following are not mentioned in the Constitution of, India ?, [NDA-2017], 1. Council of Ministers, 2. Collective Responsibility, 3. Resignation of Ministers, 4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister, Select the correct answer from the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 1 and 3, 155. Consider the following statement :, 1. The President cannot function without the Union Council of, Ministers., 2. The Solicitor-General is the highest legal authority of the Union, Government., 3. The Union Council of Ministers can function for sometime even, after death or resignation of the Prime minister., 4. In the absence of the Prime Minister, only the Home Minister can, preside over emergency meetings of the Union Council of, Ministers., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) 3 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 156. Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of, Human Resource Development?, (a) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy, (b) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education, (c) Department of Technical Education, (d) Department of women and child development
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 157. Who decides the office of profit?, (a) President and Governor, (b) Union Parliament, (c) Supreme Court, (d) Union Public Service Commission, 158. The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be filled, up within, (a) 90 days, (b) 6 months, (c) One year, (d) within the period decided by the Parliament, 159. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme, Court of India, on any question of law?, (a) Prime Minister, (b) President, (c) Any of the high courts, (d) All of the above, 160. By which of the following can the President of India be, impeached?, (a) The Lok Sabha, (b) The Parliament, (c) The Chief Justice of India, (d) The Prime Minister, 161. The Prime Minister of India is the head of the, (a) State government, (b) Central government, (c) Both the state and Central government, (d) None of them, 162. If the position of President and Vice-President are vacant, who, officiates as the President of India?, (a) The Prime Minister, (b) The Chief Justice of India, (c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha, (d) None of these, 163. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with, trade union movement?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) V.V. Giri, (b) N. Sanjiva Reddy, (c) K.R. Narayanan, (d) Zakir Hussain, 164. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to which of, the following?, [CDS-2017], (a) Prime Minister, (b) President, (c) Rajya Sabha, (d) Lok Sabha, 165. The Council of Ministers has to resign if no-confidence motion is, passed by a majority of members of, (a) Lok Sabha, (b) Rajya Sabha, (c) Both the Houses separately, (d) Both the Houses in joint sitting, 166. Which of the following statements is not correct in relation to Dr., Manmohan Singh?, (a) Former Finance Minister, (b) Former Governor of RBI, (c) Former Representative of India in International Monetary Fund, (d) Member of Rajya Sabha, 167. The office of the President does not characterize the, combination of governmental systems of, (a) Parliamentary and Federal, (b) Republican and Parliamentary, (c) Presidential and Republican, (d) Democratic and Republican, 168. The President of India enjoys emergency powers of, (a) Two types, (b) Three types, (c) Four types, (d) Five types, 169. How many times can the President of India seek re-election to, his post?, (a) Once
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) 2 times, (c) 3 times, (d) Any numbers of time, 170. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two, consecutive terms?, (a) Dr. Radhakrishnan, (b) Mr. R. Venkataraman, (c) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma, (d) Mr. V.V. Giri, 171. In India, the Prime Minister remains in office so long as he, enjoys the, (a) Support of armed forces, (b) Confidence of Rajya Sabha, (c) Confidence of Lok Sabha, (d) Support of the people, 172. The proposal relating to dismissal of the Vice-President can be, presented in, (a) any House of the Parliament, (b) the Rajya Sabha, (c) The Lok Sabha, (d) None of these, 173.. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to, address his resignation letter?, (a) Chief Justice of India, (b) Secretary of Lok Sabha, (c) Vice President, (d) Prime Minister, 174. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned, before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha?, (a) Chandra Shekhar, (b) Morarji Desai, (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh, (d) V.P. Singh, 175. The Union Executive of India consists of:, (a) The President; Vice-President, Lok Sabha Speaker and the, Council of Ministers
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) The President, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha, Speaker and the Prime Minister, (c) The President and the Council of Ministers only, (d) The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers only, 176. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college, consisting of, (a) members of both Houses of Parliament, (b) members of Rajya Sabha only, (c) elected members of both Houses of Parliament, (d) elected members of Lok Sabha only, 177. Which of the following bodies of India are headed by the Prime, Minister?, 1. National Development Council, 2. Interstate Council, 3. National Water Resource Council, 4. National Integration Council, Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 4 only, (b) 1, 2 and 4 only, (c) 2, 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 178. Consider the following statements in regard to the Union, Council of Ministers, 1. Parliamentary secretaries are the members of the council of, Ministers., 2. The cabinet is superior to the council of Ministers., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 179. Department of official languages is subordinate office of which, ministry?, (a) Ministry of social justice and Empowerment, (b) Ministry of Home Affairs, (c) Ministry of Rural Development
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Ministry of Culture, 180. With regard to union government, consider the following, statements:, 1. The ministries /departments of government of India are created, by the PM on the advice of counsel of Ministers., 2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a minister by the president, on the advice of PM., 3. The administrative head of the cabinet secretariat is also the exofficio chairman of the civil services Board, Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 181. Consider the following statements regarding censure motion:, 1. It need not state the ground on which it is based, 2. It can be moved only against the council of ministers and not, against an individual minister., 3. No leave of house is required to move this motion, 4. It is in the discretion of the government to find time and fix a date, for its discussion., Which of the statements given above are not correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2, 3 and 4 only, (c) 1, 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 182. Which one of the following is part of the Electoral College for the, election of the president of India but does not form part of the, forum for his impeachment?, [NDA-2017], (a) Lok Sabha, (b) Rajya Sabha, (c) State Legislative Councils, (d) State legislative Assemblies, 183. If the PM belonged to the upper House of Parliament?, (a) He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a noconfidence motion.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House., (c) He can make statements only in the Upper House., (d) He has to become a member of the Lower House within six, months after swearing in as the PM., 184. With reference to India polity, which one of the following, statements is correct?, (a) Planning commission is accountable to parliament., (b) President can make ordinance only when either of the two, houses of parliament is not in session., (c) The minimum age prescribed for appointment as a judge of the, Supreme Court is 40 years., (d) NDC is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief, Ministers of all the states., 185. Consider the following statements;, In the electoral college for Presidential election in India, 1. The value of the vote of an electoral member of Legislative, Assembly equals., , 2., , The value of the vote of an electing member of parliament, equals., , 3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest elections., Which of these statements is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 only, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 3 only, 186. Consider the following statements given below:, 1. J. L. Nehru was in his fourth term as the PM of India at the time, of his death., 2. J.L. Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member, of Parliament.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., , The first non-congress PM of India assumed the office in the, year 1977., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 3 only, (c) 1 only, (d) 1 and 3 only, 187. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice, President of India?, (1) Mohd. Hidayatullah, (2) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed, (3) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, (4) Shankar Dayal Sharma, Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1 and 4 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 3 and 4 only, 188. Department of Border management is a department of which, one of the following Union Ministers ?, (a) Ministry of Defense, (b) Ministry of Home Affairs., (c) Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways, (d) Ministry of Environment and Forest., 189. With reference to Union Government consider the following, statements :, 1. The constitution of India provides that all cabinet ministers shall, be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only., 2. The Union cabinet secretariat operates under the direction of the, ministry of Parliamentary Affairs., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 190. With reference to Union Government consider the following, statements:, 1. The ministries/Departments of the government of India are, created by the PM on the advice of the cabinet secretary., 2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a minister by the president, of India on the advice of the PM., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 191. Consider the List-I and List-II and choose the correct code given, below., List - I, , List - II, , A., , National Front, , 1., , 1996-98, , B., , United Front, , 2., , 1998-2004, , C., , National, Democratic, Alliance, , 3., , 1989-90, , United, Progressive, Alliance, Codes:, , 4., , 2004-14, , D., , A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 3, , 1, , 2, , 4, , (b), , 1, , 3, , 2, , 4, , (c), , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , (d), 1, 2, 4, 3, 192. Which of the following pairs of Constitutional authority and, procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , President: Elected by an electoral college consisting of elected, MLAs and MPs., 2. Vice-president: Elected by an electoral college consisting of, MLAs and MPs., 3. Speaker: The House of People chooses after its first sitting., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 2 and 3 only, 193. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which, the Parliamentary system of government in India operates ?, 1. Nominal Executive Head, 2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House, 3. Real executive authority with the Council of Ministers., 4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House, Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 194. Consider the following statement :, 1. The President nominates twelve members of the Rajya Sabha, on the advice of the Council of Ministers., 2. The President has absolute power to appoint and remove the, Chairman and members of statutory bodies at his, discretion., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 195. Consider the following statement :, 1. The President can commute death sentence to life, imprisonment.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , The, , Governor cannot commute death sentence to life, imprisonment., 3. The President’s power to pardon extends to punishments or, sentences by court martial., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) 2 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2 and 3 only, 196. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : President of India is the Chief Executive of, Government of India., Reason (R) : President of India is elected by the elected, members of Parliament and elected members of, state legislative assemblies., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 197. Consider the following statement :, The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India, for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless:, 1. A resolution containing the proposal is moved after a seven days, notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4th of the total, number of the members of that House., 2. The resolution is passed by the majority of not less than 2/3rd of, the total membership of that House., Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 198. Consider the following statements relating to the President of, India :, 1. He may resign by writing to the Vice-President., 2. He shall continue, not withstanding the expiration of his term, to, hold office until his successor enters upon his office., 3. His is not entitled to hold the office for more than two terms., Which of the statements given above are correct ?, (a) 1 and 3 only, (b) 1 and 2 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2 and 3 only, 199. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : The President of India occupies almost the same, position as the King or Queen of England., Reason (R) : The President is ultimately bound to act in, accordance with the advice given by the Council, of Ministers., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A., (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A., (c) A is true but R is false., (d) A is false but R is true., 200. Which of the following bodies are headed by the Prime Minister, ?, 1. National Integration Council, 2. National Water Resources Council, 3. National Development Council, 4. Inter-State Council, 5. Zonal Council, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 3, 4 and 5, (b) 3, 4 and 5, (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 2, 3 and 4, 201. Who of the following became Prime Minister after being Chief, Ministers ?, 1. P.V. Narasimha Rao, 2. Charan Singh, 3. H.D. Deve Gowda, 4. V.P. Singh, 5. Morarji Desai, Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 2, 3, 4 and 5, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 202. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity, and coordination among members of the Council, of Ministers., Reason (R) : It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to select, or drop a member of the Cabinet., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 203. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India:, 1. V.V. Giri, 2. M. Hidayatullah, 3. B.D. Jatti, 4. G.S. Pathak, Which on of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures?, (a) 1-4-3-2, (b) 2-1-3-4, (c) 3-2-1-4
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 4-1-3-2, 204. Which one of the following Union ministries implements the, Cartagena Protocol on biosafety?, (a) Ministry of Science and Technology, (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, (c) Ministry of Environment and Forests, (d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, 205. India started Visa on Arrival (VOA) facility for Pakistan., Consider the following statements regarding this VOA facility., 1. The visas are valid for Pakistan senior citizens only., 2. This visa will be given at Attari/Wagah checkpost for 45 days., 3. It will be a multiple entry visa., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 206. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding, recent guidelines issued by the Union Home Ministry for, regulating surrogacy?, (a) Surrogacy should be recognized in the country of the foreign, couple who intended to have an Indian surrogate., (b) Single foreigners as well as gay couples would not be eligible for, Indian surrogate., (c) Only these foreign men and women, who are married for at least, two years, would be granted the visas., (d) Foreign couples who intended to have an Indian surrogate, should provide a letter from the Foreign Ministry of their, country certifying that a child has the rights to enter the, home country as a biological child., 207. Consider the following statements about the President of, India., (CDS 2016-I), 1. The President has the right to address and send message to The, Council of Ministers to clicit specific information, 2. The President can call for information relating to proposala for, legislation
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., , All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to administration, of the Union must be communicated to the President, Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 3 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 2 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 208. Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were, defeated by a vote of No Confidence ? (CDS 2016-I), 1. Morarji Desai, 2. Viswanath Pratap Singh, 3. H.D. Deve Gowda, 4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1,2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 2, 3 and 4 only, (d) 1 and 4 only, 209. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the, President of India are correct? (CDS 2016-I), 1. The President has the power to grant pardon to a criminal in, special case, 2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the, Parliament is in session, 3. The President can dissolve the Rajya Sabha during emergency., 4. The President has the power to nominate two member in the Lok, Sabha from the Anglo Indian community, Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 4, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 3 only 4, 210. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of, emergency in the year 1976? [NDA 2007-I], (a) V.V Giri, (b) Giani Zail Singh
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Fakhr-ud-din Ali Ahmad, (d) Shankar Dayal Sharma, 211. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime Minister of, India?, [NDA 2007-II], (a) Devi Lal, (b) GL Nanda, (c) LK Advani, (d) YB Chavan, 212. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-II], 1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President of India,, he performs simultaneously the functions of the Chairman, of Rajya Sabha., 2. The President, of India can promulgate ordinances at any time, except when both Houses of Parliament are in session., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 213. Consider the following statements [NDA 2008-I], 1. The Union Executive consists of the President and the Council of, Ministers with the Prime Minister as the head., 2. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the, Vice-President, resign his office., 3. Executive power of the Union is vested in the Prime Minister., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 3, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) Only 2, 214. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of, India?, [NDA 2008-I], (a) Jawaharlal Nehru, (b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad, (c) Dr BR Ambedkar, (d) T Krishnamachari
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 215. Who among the following was the Finance Minister of India in, the Interim Government during 1946-1947?, [NDA 2008-II], (a) R K Shanmukham Chetty, (b) John Mathai, (c) Liaquat Ali Khan, (d) Chintamanrao Deshmukh, 216. Department of Official Language (Raj Bhasha Vibhag) comes, under which one of the following Ministries?, [NDA 2008-II], (a) Ministry of Culture, (b) Ministry of Home Affairs, (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development, (d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, 217. Consider the following statements [NDA 2009-I], 1. The Ministries Departments of the Union Government are, created by the Prime Minister., 2. The Cabinet Secretary is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Civil, Services Board., Which of the statement given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 218. In which one of the following Minsitries the census organisation, has been functioning on a permanent footing since, 1961?, [NDA 2009-I], (a) Health and Family Welfare, (b) Home Affairs, (c) Social Justice and Empowerment, (d) Human Resource Development, 219. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India, [NDA 2009-I], 1. V.V Giri, 2. M Hidayatullah, 3. BD Jatti
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 4. GS Pathak, Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures?, (a) 1, 4, 3, 2, (b) 2, 1, 3, 4, (c) 3, 2, 1,4, (d) 4, 1,3, 2, 220. In India the Supreme Command of the Armed Forces is, vested, in the President. This means that in the exercise of this, power, [NDA 2009-II], (a) he/she cannot be regulated by law, (b) he/she shall be regulated by law, (c) during war, the President seeks advice only from the Chiefs of, the Armed Forces, (d) during war the President can suspended the Fundamental Rights, of citizens, 221. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote, for himself during the ‘Vote of Confidence’ that he was seeking, from the Lok Sabha?, [NDA 2009-II], (a) VP Singh, (b) PV Narasimha Rao, (c) Chandra Sekhar, (d) Manmohan Singh, 222. Who among the following was elected President of India, unopposed?, [NDA 2009-II], (a) Dr Rajendra Prasad, (b) Dr S Radhakrishnan, (c) Dr Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy, (d) K R Narayanan, 223. If the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha, [NDA 2009-II], (a) He/she has to get elected to the Lok Sabha within 6 months, (b) He/she can declare the government’s policies only in the Rajya, Sabha, (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no, confidence is under consideration
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) He/she cannot take part in the budget deliberation in the Lok, Sabha, 224. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned, before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok, Sabha?, [NDA 2010-I], (a) Chandra Shekhar, (b) Morarji Desai, (c) Chaudhary Charan Singh, (d) VP Singh, 225. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated, in, [NDA 2010-II], (a) either house of the Parliament, (b) a joint siting of both houses of the Parliament, (c) the Lok Sabha alone, (d) the Rajya Sabha alone, 226. The President of India is elected by a proportional, representation system through single transferable vote. This, implies that, [NDA 2011-I], (a) each elected MP or MLA has an equal number of votes, (b) MPs and MLAs of a State have the same number of votes, (c) all MPs and MLAs have one vote each, (d) MPs and MLAs of different States have different numbers of, votes, 227. Consider the following statements about the powers of the, President of India, [NDA 2012-I], 1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has, been taken by a Minister should be placed before the, Council of Ministers., 2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for, legislation., 3. The President has the right to address and send messages to, either House of the Parliament., 4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the, administration of the Union must be communicated to the, President., Which of the statements given above are correct?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) 1,2 and 3, (b) 1 and 3, (c) 2 and 4, (d) 1,2, 3 and 4, 228. Which of the following pairs of constitutional authority and, procedure of appointment is/are correctly matched?, [NDA 2013-II], 1. President : Elected by an electoral college consisting of elected, MLAs and MPs, 2. Vice-President: Elected by an electoral college consisting of, MLAs and MPs, 3. Speaker : The House of People chooses after its first sitting, Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) Only 1, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 2 and 3, 229. The principle of “collective responsibility’ under parliamentary, democracy implies that [NDA 2014-I], 1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved against the Council of, Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister., 2. no person shall be nominated to the cabinet except on the advice, of the Prime Minister., 3. no person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the, Prime minister says that he shall be dismissed., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Only 3, (d) 2 and 3, 230. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in, respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House, on such day as the, [NDA 2014-I], (a) Speaker may direct, (b) President of India may direct, (c) Parliament may decide
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Finance Minister may decide, 231. Which of the following is/are departmcnt(s) in Ministry of, Defence ?, [NDA 2014-II], 1. Department of Defence, 2. Department of Defence Research and Development, 3. Department of Defence Production, 4. Department of Defence Finance, Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1 only, 232. Notification regarding commencement on cessation of a state of, war is the responsibility of[NDA 2015-I], (a) Ministry of Home Affairs, (b) Ministry of Defence, (c) Ministry of External Affairs, (d) None of the above, 233. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?, [NDA 2015-I], (a) The President cannot pardon a person sentenced by a Court, Martial., (b) The supreme command of the defence forces of the Union vests, in the President, but its exercise has to be regulated by law., (c) A person awarded rigorous imprisonment cannot be compelled to, do hard work as this would amount to violation of Article 23, of the Constitution of India., (d) The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 excludes the powers of the, High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India in, relation to service matters of persons in the armed forces., 234. Which one of the following statements about the Union, Executive in India is correct ?, [NDA/NA 2016-II], (a) According to the Constitution of lndia, the total number of, member of the Council of Ministers cannot, exceed 20% of the total number of Members of the house of the, People
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) The rank of different Ministers is determined by the president, (c) The Ministers is appointed by the president on the advice of the, Prime Minister, (d) Only a member of either House of Paliament can be appointed as, a Minister., 235. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister of India, is codified in the Constitution of India itself?, [NDA/NA 2016-II], (a) The power of advising the president as regards the appointment, of other Ministers, (b) The power to allocate business amonst the Ministers, (c) The power of summon the meeting of the cabinet, (d) The power of transfer of Minister from one Department to another, department, 236. Which of the following statements relating to election as the, President of India is/are correct? [NDA/NA 2016-I], 1. A person above the age of thirty-five years is eligible for election, as the President of India., 2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one, term., 3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the, person holds an office of profit., Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 3 only, 237. The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no - confidence, motion is passed by a majority of members of, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) Lok Sabha, (b) Rajya Sabha, (c) Both the Houses separately, (d) Both the House in joint sitting, 238. State Governor is appointed by, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) Central cabinet
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court, (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha, (d) President of India, 239. The Council of Minsters is collectively responsible to which of, the following?, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) Prime Minister, (b) President, (c) Rajya Sabha, (d) Lok Sabha, 240. Who amongst the following elects the Vice President of, India?, [UP-PCS 2012], Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, 1., Members of Lok Sabha, 2., Members of Rajya Sabha, 3., Members Legislative Assemblies, 4., Members of Legislative Councils, Codes :, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 241. Who has the right under the Constitution to seek the opinion of, the Supreme Court on Question of law?, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) President, (b) Any High Court, (c) Prime Minister, (d) All the above, 242. At least how many days of prior notice is required for the, impeachment to the President of India? [UP-PCS 2014], (a) 7 days, (b) 14 days, (c) 21 days, (d) 30 days, 243. In the absence of both the President of India and the Vice, President of India who shall act as the President of India?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 244., , Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Vice Chairman of Rajya Sabha, A person elected by the Lok Sabha with two third majority, Which one of the following types of bureaucracy exhibits a bias, towards party interests?, [UGC 2016], (a) Guardian bureaucracy, (b) Caste bureaucracy, (c) Patronage bureaucracy, (d) Merit bureaucracy, 245. Which of the following are true of presidential system of, government?, [UGC 2016], (a) President is both Head of the State and Head of the, Government., (b) It is based on separation of powers., (c) President’s term of office is fixed., (d) Secretaries are responsible to the President as well as to the, Senate., Select the correct answer from the codes given below:, (a) (a), (b) and (c), (b) (a), (b), (c), and (d), (c) (a), (b), and (d), (d) (a), (c), and (d), 246. Which of the following statements are correct about the Vice Presidents of India and America?, [UGC 2016], (1) Both the Vice-Presidents are elected for a fixed term., (2) They are the presiding officers of the upper house., (3) They appoint the committees of the house., (4) They have a casting vote in case of a tie., Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) (1), (2) and (4), (b) (2) and (3), (c) (1), (2) and (3), (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4), 247. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from, the codes given below :, [UGC 2016]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , List – I (Presidents, of India), , List – II (Tenure), , (a), , Varahgiri Venkatgiri, , 1., , July 1987 — July 1992, , (b), , Dr. Zakir Hussain, , 2., , July 1977 — July 1982, , (c), , R. Venkatraman, , 3., , August 1969 — August 1974, , (d), , Neelam Sanjiva, Reddy, Codes:, , 4., , May 1967 — May 1969, , (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , (a), , 3, , 1, , 4, , 2, , (b), , 3, , 4, , 1, , 2, , (c), , 2, , 2, , 4, , 1, , (d), 248., , 1, 2, 3, 4, The President of India, who granted his consent, to the Bill of, Creation of Uttarakhand State was –, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], (a) R. Venkatraman, (b) K. R. Narayanan, (c) Shankar Dayal Sharma, (d) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, 249. Which of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the, President of India?, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], (a) Returning back an ordinary bill for reconsideration, (b) Returning back a money bill for reconsideration, (c) Dissolution of Lok Sabha, (d) Summoning of the session of the Rajya Sabha, 250. The States and the Central Government derive power, from–, [MP-PSC 2017], (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the President of India, (c) the Prime Minister of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) the Parliament of India, 251. President of India exercises his powers – [BPSC 2017], (a) either directly or through officers subordinate to him, (b) through Ministers, (c) through Prime Ministers, (d) through Cabinet, (e) None of the above / More than one of the above, 252. In case a President dies while in office, the Vice - President, can act as President for a maximum period of –, (a) 1 year, (b) 3 months, (c) 6 months, (d) 2 years, 253. Who among the following is not appointed by the President of, India?, (a) The Attorney General of India, (b) The Solicitor General of India, (c) Special officer for linguistic minorities, (d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India, 254. As per the constitutional provisions. The President of India, enjoys the power of absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket, veto. However none of these can be applied on case of giving, assent to –, (a) Money Bill, (b) Bill related to declaration of emergency in a part or whole of the, country, (c) Bill related to suspension of any of the fundamental rights, (d) All of the above, 255. Consider the following statements in the context of Indian, Constitution :, [UGC-II 2016], 1. The Union Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible, to the Lok Sabha., 2. Union Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Prime, Minister., Of these :, (a) Only 1 is correct
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Both 1 and 2 are correct, (c) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct, (d) Only 2 is correct, 256. Which of the following doesn’t consist in the power To Pardon’, of President?, (i) Pardon, (ii) Commutation, (iii) Remission, (iv) Respite, (v) Reprieve, (vi) Detention, (vii) Continuation, (a) (i), (b) (ii), (iii), (c) (iv), (v), (d) (vi), (vii), 257. Consider the following facts about the election of President of, India., I. All elected MPs of both the houses and MLAs of legislative, assemblies, including Delhi and Puducherry are part of, electoral college of the President., II. Unlike in voting by elected representatives in Legislative, Assemblies and Parliament, Party whips cannot be issued, in voting for presidential elections., Which of the above statements is correct?, (a) Only I, (b) Only II, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II, 258. Consider the following statements in relation to the election of, president of India., Statements:, I. The total value of votes in president’s election is about 10,98,903, votes with each MP carrying a vote value of 708. The vote, weight of an MLA depends on the population of the state he, or she represents.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , II. For the purpose of calculation of value of votes of MPs / MLAs in, President’s Election, the population of Census 1971 in, considered., Which of the following is correct?, (a) Only I, (b) Only II, (c) Both I and II, (d) Neither I nor II, 259. The value of votes of electors (voters) of elector college of the, president is basically determined on the basis of population of, the states, as per the census data of –, (a) Census of India 1971, (b) Census of India 1981, (c) Census of India 1991, (d) Census of India 2001, 260. Which of the following formulae is being used to calculate the, value of a vote of an MLA of the state?, (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), 261. Who votes in the election of Vice President of India?, (a) All the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) All the Members of Parliament and members of legislative, assemblies, (c) Elected MPs and MLAs, (d) All of the MPs , MLAs and MLCs, 262. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the, Supreme Court, the acts performed by President incumbent, before the date of such decision of court remain–, [CDS-2017], (a) Valid, (b) Invalid, (c) Valid Subject to the judicial review, (d) Valid Subject to the approval of the parliament, 263. Which of the following ministers can attend the meetings of the, cabinet?, I., Cabinet Minister, II. Minister of State independent charge, III. Minister of State, IV. Deputy Minister, (a) Only I, (b) Only I and II, (c) I, II and III, (d) I, II, III and IV, 264. Which of the following is/are part of electoral college of the, President of India?, I. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha (upper house of the, Parliament of India)., II. Elected members of the Lok Sabha (lower house of the, Parliament of India)., III. Elected members of each state Vidhan Sabha (lower house of, the state legislature)., IV. Elected members of each union territory possessing an assembly, (i.e., Delhi and Pudducherry)., V. Elected members of each state Vidhan Parishad (upper house of, the state legislature)., (a) I, II, III and IV, (b) I, II and III
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) I and II, (d) All of the above, 265. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is, that, [IAS-2017], (a) the executive and legislature work independently., (b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient., (c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature., (d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election., 266. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out, the, principle, underlying, the, Cabinet, form, of, Government:, [IAS-2017], (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the, Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to, carry out to the satisfaction of all., (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government, whose responsibilities are increasing day by day., (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective, responsibility of the Government to the people., (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the, Government whose hold over the people is in a state of, decline., , Union Judiciary, 267. The guardian of fundamental rights is, (a) Judiciary, (b) Executive, (c) Parliament, (d) None of above, 268. Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to, review its own judgment or order?, (a) Article 137, (b) Article 130, (c) Article 139, (c) Article 138, 269. Consider the following functionaries, 1. Cabinet Secretary
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2. Chief Election Commissioner, 3. Union Cabinet Minister, 4. Chief Justice of India, Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is, (a) 3, 4, 2, 1, (b) 4, 3, 1, 2, (c) 4, 3, 2, 1, (d) 3, 4, 1, 2, 270. How is legislative excess of Parliament and State Assemblies, checked?, (a) Intervention from President/Governor, (b) No- confidence motions, (c) Judicial review, (d) General elections, 271. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below the lists :, List I, (Functionaries), , List II, (Oaths or, affirmations), , A., , President of India, , 1., , B., , Judges of Supreme Court 2., , Faithful discharge of, duties, , C., , Members of Parliament, , 3., , Faith and Allegiance, to the constitution of, India, , D., , Minister for the Union, , 4., , Upholding the, constitution and the, law, , Codes:, (a), , A, , B, , C, , D, , 3, , 4, , 1, , 2, , Secrecy of, Information
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , (c), , 3, , 4, , 2, , 1, , (d), 4, 3, 1, 2, 272. Which of the following constitutional provisions facilitate Union, control over States ?, 1. All-India services, 2. Grants-in-aid, 3. Inter-State Councils, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 273. What does the ‘Judicial Review’ function of the Supreme Court, mean?, (a) Review its own judgment, (b) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country, (c) Examine the constitutional validity of the constitution, (d) Examine the judicial amendments, 274. The disputes regarding the election of the President and VicePresident of India are decided by the(a) Parliament, (b) Election Commission, (c) Supreme Court, (d) High Court, 275. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court?, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 5, (d) 6, 276. The Supreme Court of India enjoys, (a) original jurisdiction, (b) Advisory jurisdiction, (c) Appellate and advisory jurisdictions, (d) original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 277. What makes the judiciary the guardian of the constitution?, (a) Independence, (b) Service conditions, (c) Salary, (d) Judicial Review, 278. On which of the following grounds can a judge of the Supreme, Court be impeached?, [NDA-2017], (a) Violation of constitution, (b) Proved misbehaviours, (c) Incapacity to act as a judge, (d) (b), & (c) both, 279. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with, (a) judicial review, (b) judicial activism, (c) judicial intervention, (d) judicial sanctity, 280. Who held the power to increase the number of judges in the, Supreme Court?, (a) Prime Minister, (b) President, (c) Parliament, (d) Ministry of Law, 281. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in India is appointed, by the, (a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court, (b) Prime Minister, (c) President, (d) Law Minister, 282. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme, Court of India, on any question of law?, (a) Prime Minister, (b) President, (c) Any judge of the High Court, (d) All of the above, 283. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes, between the Centre and the State falls under its _________
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Advisory Jurisdiction, (b) Appellate Jurisdiction, (c) Constitutional Jurisdiction, (d) original Jurisdiction, 284. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by:, (a) Powers of the President of India, (b) Judicial Review, (c) Powers of the Prime Minister of India, (d) Leader of the opposition, 285. Who of the following Chief Justice of India acted as the, President of India also?, (a) Justice M. Hidayatullah, (b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati, (c) Justice Mehar Chand Mahajan, (d) Justice B.K. Mukherjee, 286. The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of Adhoc, judges in:, (a) Supreme Court, (b) High Court, (c) District and Session Court, (d) All of these, 287. Salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined by:, (a) Pay Commission appointed by the President, (b) Law Commission, (c) Parliament, (d) Council of Ministers, 288. Which of the following courts in India is/are known as the, court(s) of Records?, (a) The High Court only, (b) The Supreme Court only, (c) The High Court and Supreme Court, (d) The District Court, 289. The system of Judicial Review exists in, (a) India only, (b) U.K. only, (c) U.S.A. only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) India and U.S.A., 290. Which article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to, review its own judgement or order?, (a) Article 137, (b) Article 138, (c) Article 139, (d) Article 140, 291. Who is the custodian of Indian Constitution?, (a) President, (b) Parliament, (c) Council Court, (d) Supreme Court, 292. Who has the right to transfer any case anywhere in India?, (a) President, (b) Supreme Court, (c) High Court, (d) None of these, 293. Who is the final authority to interpret the Constitution?, (a) The President, (b) The Parliament, (c) The Lok Sabha, (d) The Supreme Court, 294. Who was the Chief Justice of India when public Interest, Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial system?, (a) M. Hidayatullah, (b) A.M. Ahmadi, (c) P.N. Bhagwati, (d) A.S. Anand, 295. Judicial Review’s Doctrine of Partial Annulment is related to, which article of the Constitution?, (a) Article 13, (b) Article 32, (c) Article 141, (d) Article 246, 296. Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court is mentioned in which of, the following articles of Indian Constitution?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Article 131, (b) Article 132, (c) Article 143, (d) Article 148, 297. Which article of Indian Constitution provides an advisory, jurisdiction to the Supreme Court?, [NDA-2017], (a) Article 129, (b) Article 132, (c) Article 143, (d) Article 32, 298. Reasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) can be imposed on, the ground of, (a) Defection, (b) Contempt of court, (c) Death of the PM, (d) Signing of a trade treaty with a country, 299. In Indian Constitution the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas, corpus’ is vested only in(a) The Supreme Court, (b) The High Court, (c) The Supreme Court and the High Court, (d) Lower Courts, 300. The Federal court of India was established in, (a) 1947, (b) 1946, (c) 1935, (d) 1937, 301. Judicial Review signifies that the Supreme Court, (a) has final authority in overall cases, (b) can declare a state law as unconstitutional, (c) can review cases whose decisions have been given by High, Court, (d) None of the above, 302. Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution is based on which of, the following ?, (a) Rule of law
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Due process of Law, (c) Procedure established by law, (d) Conventions, 303. The Provisions concerning the powers of the Union judiciary in, the constitution can be amended by, (a) Simple majority of the Parliament, (b) Two-third majority of the Parliament, (c) Two-third majority of the Parliament and the majority of states, (d) None of the above, 304. Justice is essentially a, (a) Moral concept, (b) Social concept, (c) Legal concept, (d) Complex concept combining all the above concepts, 305. The Supreme Court of India declares by issuing a writ that, “respondent was not entitled to an office he was holding or a, privilege he was exercising”. Which writ is that?, (a) Habeas Corpus, (b) Quo Warranto, (c) Prohibition, (d) Certiorari, 306. What is the objective advocated for appointment of the National, Judicial Commission?, (a) Training of the judges, (b) Reforms in legal system, (c) Bringing about transparency and impartiality in the appointment, of judges of the highest level., (d) To examine the working period of the judges., 307. How can the number of judges in the Supreme Court in India be, increased ?, (a) Representation from the Supreme Court, (b) By amendment of the Constitution, (c) By a Parliamentary Act, (d) By Presidential notification, 308. Assertion (a) : A Habeas Corpus writ petition dismissed by the, Supreme Court can be admitted by the High Court under article
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 226 of the Constitution., Reason (R) : In exercising writ jurisdiction, the powers of the, Supreme Court and High Court are concurrent., (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 309. To be eligible to be appointed as a Judge of Supreme Court of, India,how long a person should have practised in a High Court?, (a) 10 Years, (b) 15 Years, (c) 12 Years, (d) 5 Years, 310. The number of judges can be modified in the Supreme Court by, (a) Presidential Order, (b) Supreme Court by Notification, (c) Parliament by Law, (d) Central Government by notification, 311. In which year Supreme Court of India came into being?, (a) 1937 January 28, (b) 1947 January 28, (c) 1950 January 28, (d) 1949 January 28, 312. Consider the following statements:, (a) A tenant can be evicted for abuse or threat to landlord or, landlady., (b) A father neglected by his son is legally entitled to execute a will, bequeathing his property in favour of his relatives., Which of following senetence (S) is/are corrcet?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 313. The Supreme Courts of India enjoys
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) original jurisdiction, (b) original, appellate and advisory jurisdiction, (c) Advisory jurisdiction, (d) Appellate and advisory jurisdiction, 314. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes, between the Centre and the States falls under its, (a) Advisory Jurisdiction, (b) Appellate Jurisdiction, (c) constitutional Jurisdiction, (d) original Jurisdiction, 315. Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme Court, regarding its judgement?, [CDS-2017], (a) It cannot change the judgement, (b) Only the Chief Justice of India can change the judgement, (c) It can change the judgement, (d) Only the Ministry of Law can change the judgement., 316. Which one of the following subjects comes under the common, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court?, (a) Protection of the Fundamental Rights, (b) Mutual disputes among the states, (c) Disputes between Centre and States, (d) Protection from the violation of the Constitution, 317. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court, will be in:, (a) Hindi, (b) English, (c) Hindi and English, (d) Hindi or English, 318. The minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional, Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the, reference by the President must be:, (a) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court, (b) Seven, (c) Three, (d) One-third of the total strength of the court, 319. Which is not a correct statement? The Supreme Court:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) is a watch-dog of citizen’s liberty, (b) settles electoral disputes of the President and Vice-President of, India, (c) interprets the Constitution, (d) protects the Directive Principles of State Policy, 320. The main sources of law in India are:, I. The Constitution, II. Statutes, III. Customary law, IV. Judicial decisions of superior courts, Choose the answer from the code:, (a) I and II, (b) I, II and IV, (c) II and IV, (d) I, II, III and IV, 321. The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates:, (a) that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an, Advisory Board authorises detention beyond that period, (b) that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to the detenu, before arresting him, (c) that the detenu must be produced before the nearest magistrate, within a period of 24 hours of his arrest, (d) All of the above, 322. Which of the following articles makes the Supreme Court a, Court of Record?, (a) 127, (b) 128, (c) 129, (d) 130, 323. What is the number of Judges (including Chief Justice) in the, Supreme Court of India as provided in the Constitution of India?, (a) 20, (b) 24, (c) 26, (d) 28
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 324. On which of the following grounds can a Judge of the Supreme, Court or a High Court be impeached?, 1. Violation of the Constitution, 2. Proved misbehaviour, 3. Incapacity, Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2 and 3, 325. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) may be linked with, (a) judicial review, (b) judicial activism, (c) judicial intervention, (d) judicial sanctity, 326. Consider the following statements and select the correct, answer:, 1. The original jurisdiction of Supreme Court extends only to any, dispute between the government of India and one or more, States., 2. The Supreme Court also has an appellate jurisdiction over all, courts and tribunals in India, 3. The Supreme Court has special advisory jurisdiction in matters, which may specifically be referred to it by the president of, India, Codes:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) All the above, 327. In the following cases, the Supreme Court has no adjudicatory, jurisdiction to change the award, (a) Inter state river water disputes, (b) Delimitation of constitution, (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Neither (a), nor (b)
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 328. The minimum number of judges who are to sit for the purpose of, deciding any case involving any substantial question of law for, the purpose of hearing any reference under Art 143 shall be, (a) Five, (b) Seven, (c) Nine, (d) Eleven, 329. Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction under the following, article in relation to, 1. Constitutional cases, 2. Federal cases, 3. Cases related to directive principles of state policy, 4. River water disputes., Codes:, (a) 1 and 3 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 only, (d) 1,2 and 3, 330. Special leave petition power of the Supreme Court does not, extend to the following judgements, decrees etc., 1. interim order, 2. Any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to, the Armed forces, 3. Criminal cases., (a) 1 and 3 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 only, (d) 2 only, 331. Among the three types of alternative dispute resolutionsarbitration, conciliation and mediation, the award is binding in, the following, (a) Arbitration, (b) Conciliation, (c) Mediation, (d) None of these
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 332. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes, between the centre and the states falls under its :, (a) Advisory jurisdiction, (b) Appellate jurisdiction, (c) original jurisdiction, (d) Constitutional jurisdiction, 333. The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of, India with respect to any matter included in the Union list of, legislative powers rests with:, (a) The President of India, (b) The Chief Justice of India, (c) The Parliament, (d) The Union Ministry of Law, 334. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India does not, extend to which of the following matters?, (a) between the Government of India and one or more States, (b) between the Government of India and any State or States on, one side and one or more other States on the other, (c) between two or more States, if and in so far as the dispute, involves any question (whether of law or fact) on which the, existence or extent of a legal right depends, (d) dispute arising out of any treaty, agreement, covenant,, engagement, sand or other similar instrument, 335. Recently the Supreme Court of India issued certain guidelines, to put a halt to eve-teasing. In this regard consider the following, statements:, 1. women cops, in civil uniform, should be deputed at the public, places, 2. The court also ordered the states and the UTs to form a uniform, law, 3. The eve-teasing can lead to violation of the fundamental rights., Which of the following statement given above are correct?, (a) 1and 2 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 336. Article 136 of Indian Constitution authorizes the Supreme Court, to grant special leave to appeal. Which of the following, statement is not correct with respect to ‘Appeal by Special, Leave’?, [NDA-2017], (a) It is a discretionary power of the Supreme Court, (b) It can be granted against any court or tribunal including the, military court, (c) It can be related to any matter, (d) None of these, 337. Consider the following statements:, 1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India for the, impeachment of a judge of the High Court or Supreme, Court., 2. The parliament is not empowered to discuss the conduct of any, judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court and the, protection in this regard is applied to his judicial duties as, well as his private conduct., Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 338. Consider the following regarding death penalty, 1. Indian law permits execution only in the cases of ‘rarest of rare’, crimes., 2. In India pardoning power of the president with respect to death, sentence is decided by the president as per, recommendations of the Union Home Ministry., 3. Recently, China, Pakistan, voted against a UN resolution on, calling for a ban on capital punishment while India, supported the resolution., Which of the following given statements is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 1 and 2 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 nor 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 339. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Fast, Track Courts (FTCs) in India?, 1. The FTCs were started by the Central govern-ment pursuant to, the observations of the First National Judicial Pay, Commission, 1999, the 120th Report of the Law, Commission on Manpower Planning in the judiciary,, 2. The FTCs are established to expeditiously dispose of long, pending cases in the Sessions Courts and long pending, cases of undertrial prisoners., 3. When judges were appointed to the FTCs, their service, conditions were settled by the framing of rules which were, done in consultation with the High Courts of the States., Select the answer from the code given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) 1 and 2, (d) All of the above, 340. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : The Supreme Court is a Court of Record., Reason (R) : Once a Court is made a Court of Record, its, power to punish for its contempt necessarily, follows form that position., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 341. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : Judicial Review is a process to restrain the executive, or the legislature from exercising power which, may not be sanctioned by the Constitution.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Reason (R) : The source of the power of judicial review is, Article 13 of the Constitution., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 342. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : The rule-making power of the Supreme Court is not, subject to any law made by the Parliament of, India., Reason (R) : Only an impartial and independent judiciary can, protect the rights of the individual without fear or, favour., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 343. Which of the following statements regarding Supreme Court of, India are correct ?, 1. It has the power to entertain appeal from any court or tribunal, within India., 2. It has the power to deliver advisory opinion on any question of, fact or law referred to it by the President., 3. Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are subject to vote, by the Parliament., 4. Its jurisdiction is binding on all other courts within India., Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 1 and 3, (b) 2 and 4
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) 2, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2 and 4, 344. Which of the statement given below is / are correct?, (CDS 2016-I), 1. The ideal of a common civil code is set forth in Article 44 of the, Constitution of India, 2. In certain respects, the High Courts in India have been given, more extensive power than the Supreme Court, 3. The Supreme Court of India, the first fully independent Court for, the country was set up under the Constitution of India in, 1950, Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 only, (d) 3 only, 345. Consider the following statements [NDA 2007-II], 1. The maximum number of the Judges of the Supreme Court of, India is prescribed in the Constitution of India., 2. The maximum number of the Members of the Union Public, Service Commission is prescribed in the Constitution of, India., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) Only I, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 346. Which one of the following jurisdictions of the Indian judiciary, covers Public Interest Litigation?, [NDA 2009-II], (a) original Jurisdiction, (b) Appellate Jurisdiction, (c) Epistolary Jurisdiction, (d) Advisory Jurisdiction, 347. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India extends, to, [NDA 2011-I], (a) treaties and agreements signed by the Government of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) disputes between the Government of India and one or more, States, (c) disputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles of, State Policy, (d) a bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of the, Constitution, 348. Which of the following statements with respect to the judiciary in, India is/are correct? [NDA 2012-I], 1. Unlike in the United States, India has not provided for a double, system of courts., 2. Under the Constitution of India, there is a single integrated, system of courts for the Union as well as the states., 3. The organisation of the subordinate judiciary varies slightly from, state to state., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 2 and 3, (d) All of these, 349. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the, Supreme Court of India shall be in English language?, [NDA 2012-I], (a) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966, (b) A Legislation made by the Parliament, (c) Article 145 of the Constitution of India, (d) Article 348 of the Constitution of India, 350. Consider the following statements regarding e-courts, launched, recently in India, [NDA 2013-I], 1. They will facilitate hearing of cases via video conferencing., 2. They will follow the same procedures that are laid out for the, bench for hearing appeals in an open court., Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 351. Power of the Supreme Court of India to decide the dispute, between centre and state falls under [NDA 2013-II], (a) advisory jurisdiction, (b) original jurisdiction, (c) appellate jurisdiction, (d) constitutional jurisdiction, 352. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and VicePresidential Elections are settled by [NDA 2013-II], (a) Election Commission of India, (b) Joint Committee of Parliament, (c) Supreme Court of India, (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha, 353. Which of the following statements about Indian Judiciary is not, correct ?, [NDA 2014-II], (a) The Constitution of India has not provided for double system of, courts as in the United States, (b) The organization of the subordinate judiciary in India varies, slightly from State to State, (c) Every State in India has separate High Court, (d) The Supreme Court has issued direction to constitute an All India, Judicial Service to bring about uniformity in designation of, officers in criminal and civil side, 354. The Supreme Court of India is a ‘Court Record’. It implies, that, [UP-PCS 2008], (a) It has to keep a record of its decisions., (b) All its decisions have evidentiary value and cannot be, questioned in any court, (c) It has the power to punish for its contempt, (d) No appeal can be made against its decisions., 355. The minimum number of Judges of the Supreme Court, required for hearing any case involving interpretation of the, Constitution is, [UP-PCS 2012], (a) ten, (b) nine, (c) seven, (d) five
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 356., , A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office by written, a letter to, [UP-PCS 2014], (a) the Chief Justice, (b) the President, (c) the Prime Minister, (d) the Law Minister, 357. Who among the following shall have the right of audience in all, courts in the territory of India in performance of his, duties?, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) Advocate General, (b) Attorney General, (c) Additional Advocate General, (d) None of the above, 358. Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the –, (a) Chief Justice of India, (b) President of India, (c) Union Public Service Commission, (d) A collegium, 359. Upto what age, can the judges of Supreme Court serve?, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], (a) 62 years, (b) 68 years, (c) 65 years, (d) 70 years, 360. Consider the following statements –, 1., The oath of the Judges of High Court is administered by the, Governor of the State., 2., The oath of the judges of Supreme Court is administered by the, President of India., Which of the above statements(s) is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) None of the above, 361. In which year was the Collegium System for the appointment, of Judges adopted by the Supreme Court of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , ?, (a) 1993, (b) 1996, (c) 2000, (d) 2004, 362. Match it –, (a) Habeas Corpus, (b) Mandamces, (c) Prohibition, (d) Certiorary, (e) Quo - Warranto, (i) Be more fully informed, (ii) By which authority, (iii) We command, (iv) Let us have the body, (v) Writto Subordinate Courts, , [UK-PSC 2016], , [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], , (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , (e), , (a), , (ii), , (iv), , (v), , (iii), , (i), , (b), , (iv), , (iii), , (v), , (ii), , (i), , (c), , (iv), , (iii), , (v), , (i), , (ii), , (d), (iv), (v), (iii), (i), (ii), 363. Power of Judicial review rests with –, (a) The Supreme Court of India, (b) The High Courts, (c) Law Commission, (d) Both (a) and (b), 364. In India, Judicial Review implies, [IAS 2017], (a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality, of laws and executive orders., (b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws, enacted by the Legislatures., (c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments, before they are assented to by the President.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given, earlier in similar or different cases., 1., , 2., , 3., 4., , 5., , 6., 7., , (c) The amendment in the Directive Principle of state policy, needs for a special majority of the Parliament where the, amendment in the election of the President and its manner, needs for a special majority of the parliament., (a) Election of the President representation of the states in, Parliament and any of the Lists in the 7th schedule require, rectification of the Legislature of not less than one half of, the states for a constitution amendment., (b) Art. 59 of the constitution-The president shall not be a, member of the either House of Parliament or House of the, legislatures of any state. So, both 1 and 2 are correct., (d) Art 253- Parliament has power to make any law for the, whole or any part of the country or territory of India for, implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any, other country or any decision made at any international, conference, association or other body without the consent, of any state., (a) Parliament supervises the Activities of the executives with, the help of its committees like committees on Govt., assurance, committees on subordinate legislation,, committees on petition etc. Considering the volume of, legislation to be handled by the Parliament, committees, have been established to transact a good deal of the, legislation. Parliamentary Committees are of two kinds Standing Committees and Ad hoc Committees. The former, are elected or appointed periodically and they work on a, continuous basis. The latter are appointed on an ad hoc, basis as need arises and they cease to exist as soon as, they complete the task assigned to them., (b), (a) Such Laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the, ordinary legislative process.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 8., 9., 10., , 11., 12., , 13., 14., 15., 16., 17., , (a), (b) An amendment of the constitution can be initiated only by, the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of, Parliament and not in the state legislatures., (c) A number of provision in the constitution can be amended, by a simple majority of the two houses of parliament outside, the scope of Article 368. Some of these are:, 1. Admission or establishment of new States., 2. Formation of new states and related subjects, 3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states., 4. Second schedule- emoluments, allowances, privileges, and, so on of the president, the governors,, the speakers,, judges etc., (a), (d) The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities), Act, 1989 an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to, prevent atrocities against scheduled castes and scheduled, tribes, To, further strengthen the constitutional provision in Article 15, and Article 17, the parliament of India enacted the, Untouchability (offences) Act in 1955. This act was further, amended and renamed in 1976 as Protection of Civil Rights, Act, 1955., (d) Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its, consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of, fourteen days., (b) The chairperson of Rajya sabha in not the member of, house. Presently vice president of India Venkaiah Naidu is, the chairman of upper house., (d) The secretary to the president of India is not entitled to take, part in the activities of Lok Sabha. Other can take part., (b) The state wise allocation of seats in Lok Sabha is based on, 1971 census and this remain upto 2026 under article 82., (c) There are 12 members nominated by the president in the, Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha (RS) or Council of States is, the upper house of the Parliament of India. Membership is
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 18., 19., 20., , 21., 22., 23., , 24., 25., 26., 27., 28., , limited to 250 members, 12 of whom are nominated by the, President of India for their contributions to art, literature,, science, and social services. The remainder of the body is, elected by the state and territorial legislatures., (b) Under article 53 power of president mentioned. Any bill, presented in parliament becomes an act after president’s, assent, (d) Rajya Sabha is not a subject of dissolution. Lok Sabha, dissolved on every five years., (c) As a non-member, Attorney General can participate in the, proceedings of either House of Parliament. The Attorney, General of India is the Indian government’s chief legal, advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of, India., (b) The Vice-President of India is ex-officio Chairman of Rajya, Sabha., (c) The membership of the cabinet is for both upper house and, lower house., (b) The first speaker against whom a motion of non-confidence, was moved in the Lok Sabha was G.V. Mavalankar. Ganesh, Vasudev Mavalankar (27 November 1888 – 27 February, 1956) popularly known as Dadasaheb term – (1952 –, 1956)., Balram Jakhar - 8th Speaker of Lok Sabha., Hukum singh - 3rd Speaker of Lok Sabha., K. S. Hegde - 7th Speaker of Lok Sabha., (d) Indian Parliament consist of President and both the house., (a) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money, bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha., (b) The parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list if, the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution., (b) The first meeting after the election when the Speaker and, the Deputy Speaker are selected by members of the, Parliament is held under the Protem Speaker., (a) Calling attention is a type of motion introduced by a, member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 29., , (c), , 30., , (b), , 31., 32., , (d), (a), , 33., 34., , (b), (a), , 35., , (d), , 36., , (c), , 37., , (c), , 38., 39., , (c), (a), , 40., , (c), , 41., 42., , (a), (d), , 43., , (d), , urgent public importance., 6 months is the maximum time interval permissible, between the two successive session of the parliament., The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the, Rajya Sabha, who presides over its sessions., Rajya sabha is not a subject of dissolution., The speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called casting vote., A casting vote is a vote given to the presiding officer of a, council or legislative body to resolve a deadlock and which, can be exercised only when such a deadlock exists., Chairman of Lok sabha is designated as speaker., Speaker of Lok sabha decides wheather a bill is a money, bill or not., Officialy opposition group in the parliament required 1/10x, of the total strength., Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok Sabha in the, case of setting up of new All India Services., Speaker can resign his office to Deputy speaker of Lok, sabha., Money Bill - Lok sabha, Speaker of Lok sabha elected by simple majority in the Lok, sabha., Bicameralism has been one of the most important features, of India’s parliamentary democracy. Ever since the coming, into force of the Constitution, both the Chambers of Indian, Parliament have been complementing each other in more, ways than one., 1971 census., Baliram Bhagat was not elected for two terms as the, speaker of Lok Sabha. He served as the Speaker of Lok, Sabha from 1976 to 1977, during the turbulent final year of, Indira Gandhi’s first reign as Prime Minister., ‘Zero Hour’ in Political jargon refers to question answer, session. Zero Hour in Parliament starts at 12 noon during, which members raise matters of importance, especially, those that cannot be delayed.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 44., 45., 46., 47., 48., , 49., , 50., 51., , 52., 53., , (d) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house, not subject to, disolution, one third of its members retiring after every two, years. Thus every member enjoys a 6-year tenure., (b), (a), (d) Government bill can introduced by minister in any house of, the parliament., (a) Joint session is presided over by the speaker of Lok Sabha, or in his absence by the Deputy Speaker. In a joint sitting a, bill is passed simply by the majority of the both the, members of the house present and voting., (c) The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President, and is presided over by the Speaker or, in his absence, by, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his absence, the, Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya Sabha., (c) All the members of the Lok Sabha have chosen by direct, election except two members may be nominated by the, President from Anglo-Indian Community., (a) The first reading of the bill in a house of parliament refers, to motion for leave to introduce the bill in the House.If a, motion for leave to introduce a Bill is opposed, the Speaker,, after permitting, if he thinks fit, brief statements from the, member who opposes the motion and the member who, moved the motion, may, without further debate, put the, question: provided that where a motion is opposed on the, ground that the Bill initiates legislation outside the legislative, competence of the House, the Speaker may permit a full, discussion thereon. Provided further that the Speaker shall, forthwith put to vote the motion for leave to introduce a, Finance Bill or an Appropriation Bill., (b) The ministers are not liable for the official acts done by the, president and the governors on their advice as the courts, are debarred from inquiring into such cases., (d) There are some bills which require prior recommendation of, the President: Bill that seeks to alter the boundaries of the, states and names of the states, Money Bill (as per Article
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 54., , 55., 56., , 57., , 58., , 59., 60., 61., 62., , 110) & Finance Bill, Any bill which affects the taxation in, which the states are interested (Article 274) and State Bills, which impose restriction upon freedom of trade., (c) Both the Houses have been enshrined with equal powers, on the matter of impeachment of judges of the High Courts., Soumitra Sen is a retired judge of the Calcutta High Court., He was the first judge in independent India to be impeached, in India’s Rajya Sabha for misappropriation of funds., (d) Article 80 states that the state legislature participates in the, election of the members of Rajya Sabha and also of the, president (Art.54), (d) Decorum = Parliamentary etiquette, Crossing the floor = Changing the party, Interpolation = Seeking clarification through ruling, Yielding the floor = Respecting speaker’s order, (c) The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended by the, Parliament beyond the five-year term during the period of, time of emergency proclaimed under Art 352. But his, extension is for a period of not more than one year at a time, (no limit on the number of times in the Constitution)., (c) There is no bar on appointment of a person from outside, the legislature as Minister, but he cannot continue as, Minister for more than 6 months unless he secures a seat in, either house of the parliament (by election or nomination) in, the meantime [Article 75(5)]., (a) ‘No-confidence motion’ need not state the reason for it, being adopted in the Lok Sabha, (a) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it, would be in national interest for the parliament to legislative, with respect to a matter in the state list., (d) The Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by each, house of the Indian Parliament separately by special, majority., (d) A no-confidence motion does not need to set out grounds, on which it is based. The withdrawal of the notice by a
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 63., 64., , 65., 66., 67., 68., 69., , member may be made when he is called upon by the, speaker to ask for leave of the House., (a) Red Button represents NOES, Black button represents, ABSTAIN., (d) The resolution adopted by the House in matters concerning, its own proceedings are binding and have the force of law., Notice of resolution 170 : A member other than a minister who, wishes to move a resolution on a day allotted for private, members’ resolutions, shall give a notice to that effect at, least two days before the date of ballot. The names of all, members from whom such notices are received shall be, balloted and those members who secure the first three, places in the ballot for the day allotted for private members’, resolutions shall be eligible to give notice of one resolution, each within two days after the date of the ballot., Form of resolution 171 : A resolution may be in the form of, a declaration of opinion, or a recommendation; or may be in, the form so as to record either approval or disapproval by, the House of an act or policy of government, or convey a, message; or commend, urge or request an action; or call, attention to a matter or situation for consideration by, government; or in such other form as the Speaker may, consider appropriate., (d) The government may be expressed by the House of People, by all the statements given. So the all statements are, correct., (c), (c), (b), (d) All bills passed by the Parliament can become laws only, after receiving the assent of the President. After a bill is, presented to him, the President shall declare either that he, assents to the Bill, or that he withholds his assent from it. As a, third option, he can return a bill to the Parliament, if it is not a, money bill or a constitutional amendment bill, for, reconsideration. When, after reconsideration, the bill is passed
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 70., , 71., , 72., 73., , and presented to the President, with or without amendments,, the President cannot withhold his assent from it., (a) When a bill has been passed, it is sent to the President for, his approval. The President can assent or withhold his, assent to a bill or he can return a bill, other than a money, bill which is recommended by president himself to the, houses, with his recommendations. The president can, exercise absolute veto on aid and advice of council of, ministers. Following position can be arrived by reading, article 111 of Indian constitution with article 74. The, president may also effectively withhold his assent as per his, own discretion, which is known as pocket veto. If the, president returns it for reconsideration, the Parliament must, do so, but if it is passed again and returned to him, he must, give his assent to it., (d) After a Bill has been passed by both Houses, it is, presented to the President for his assent. The President can, assent or withhold his assent to a Bill or he can return a Bill,, other than a Money Bill, for reconsideration. If the Bill is, again passed by the Houses, with or without amendment, made by the President, he shall not withhold assent there, from. But, when a Bill amending the Constitution passed by, each House with the requisite majority is presented to the, President, he shall give his assent thereto. A Bill becomes, an Act of Parliament after being passed by both the Houses, of Parliament and assented to by the President., (a), (b) Usually, a member belonging to the ruling party is elected, the Speaker. A healthy convention, however, has evolved, over the years whereby the ruling party nominates its, candidate after informal consultations with the Leaders of, other Parties and Groups in the House. This convention, ensures that once elected, the Speaker enjoys the respect, of all sections of the House. Once a decision on the, candidate is taken, her name is normally proposed by the, Prime Minister or the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs. If
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 74., , (a), , If a, , 75., , (c), , 76., , (d), , 77., , (a), , more than one notice is received, these are entered in the, order of receipt. The Speaker pro term presides over the, sitting in which the Speaker is elected, if it is a newly, constituted House. If the election falls later in the life of a, Lok Sabha the Deputy Speaker presides. The election of a, Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker, may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send to every, member notice of this date., Article 109 special procedures in respect of Money Bills, mentions a Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council, of States. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House, of the People it shall be transmitted to the Council of States, for its recommendations and the Council of States shall, within a period of fourteen days from the date of its receipt, of the Bill return the Bill to the House of the People with its, recommendations., Money Bill passed by the House of the People and, transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations, is not returned to the House of the People within the said, period of fourteen days, it shall be deemed to have been, passed by both Houses at the expiration of the said period, in the form in which it was passed by the House of the, People., Bihar represents 16 members to Rajya Sabha. All the other, options are correct., Under article 110(1) of the Constitution a Money Bill can be, introduced in Lok Sabha only. If any question arises, whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker, thereon is final. The Speaker is under no obligation to, consult any one in coming to a decision or in giving his, certificate that a Bill is a Money Bill. The certificate of the, Speaker to the effect that a Bill is a Money Bill, is to be, endorsed and signed by him when it is transmitted to Rajya, Sabha and also when it is presented to the President for his, assent., Procedure for a Money Bill:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 78., , 79., , 80., 81., , 82., , Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha (the directly, elected ‘people’s house’ of the Indian Parliament). Money, bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha, (the upper house of parliament, elected by the state and, territorial legislatures or appointed by the President). The, Rajya Sabha may not amend money bills but can, recommend amendments., (b) During the Zero Hour members raise matters of, importance, especially those which cannot be delayed., Nobody knows which issue a member would raise during, this hour. As a result, questions so raised without prior, notice result in avoidable loss of precious time of the House., (c) The Rajya Sabha is also known as “Council of States” or, the upper house. Its members are indirectly elected by, members of legislative bodies of the States. The Rajya, Sabha has 250 members in all. Elections to it are scheduled, and the chamber cannot be dissolved. Each member has a, term of six years and elections are held for one-third of the, seats after every two years. The composition is specified in, Article 80 of the Constitution of India., (b) Under article 3 mentioned Parliament is responsible to, make changes in names and boundaries of the state., (b) According to article 342 of the constitution it is the, parliament, which can decide on the inclusion and exclusion, of a tribe into the list of schedule tribe. The President may, with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a, State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public, notification, specify the tribes or tribal communities or parts, of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall, for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be, Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union territory,, as the case may be., (b) An MP elected from a particular party does not become, disqualified for a member of a house, when he is expelled, by that particular party.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 83., , (b) The Constitution lays down 250 as the maximum strength, of the Rajya Sabha, out of which 12 are nominated by the, President from among persons who have achieved, distinction in literature, art, science and social services., 84. (a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a money Bill if it contains the, following matters, (I) The imposition abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any, tax, (II) The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any, guarantee by the Government of India, or the, amendment of the law with respect to any financial, obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the, Government of India., (III) The custody of the consolidated fund or the contigency Fund of, India, The payment of money into or withdrawal of, money from any such fund., 85. (b) After the general election and newly formed government,, the legislative section prepares a list of senior Lok Sabha, member (MPs), This list is submitted to the minister of, parliamentary affairs through this process a pro tem, Speaker is seleced and is approved by the President., 86. (b) The Bill may be introduced in either House of Parliament to, form a new state. It needs a prior permission of the, President before introduction of the Bill., 87. (c) Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money, bills passed by the Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya, Sabha.Rajya Sabha(Council of States) cannot reject or, amend this bill. It can only recommend amendments., 88. (b) The Appropriation Bill is intended to give authority to, Government to incur expenditure from and out of the, Consolidated Fund of India. The procedure for passing this, Bill is the same as in the case of other money Bills., An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the, introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament. The, procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in, Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 89., , 90., 91., 92., , 93., , 94., 95., , 96., , (b) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar became the Speaker of the, Provisional Parliament on 26 November 1949 and, continued to occupy the office till the 1st Lok Sabha that, was constituted in 1952., (c) The quorum to constitute a joint sitting shall be one-tenth of, the total number of members of the Houses., (d) The correct sequence is, Discussion on Budget,, Appropriation Bill, Finance Bill, Vote on Account., (c) Protem Speaker performs the duties of the office of the, Speaker from the commencement of the sitting of the new, Lok Sabha till the election of the Speaker. Protem speaker, is mainly an operating and temporary speaker., (c) The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is, distributed among States in such a way that the ratio, between the number of seats allotted to each State and, population of the State is, as far as practicable, the same for, all States. The 84th Amendment to the Constitution (which, was numbered as the 91st Amendment Bill before it was, passed in Parliament) lifted the freeze on the delimitation of, constituencies, as stipulated by the 42nd Constitution, amendment of 1976, and allowed delimitation within States, on the basis of the 1991 Census., (a) “Closure” is one of the means by which a debate may be, brought to a close by a majority decision of the House, even, though all members wishing to speak have not done so., (c) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in Rajya Sabha. Rajya, Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill., It can only make recommendations on the Money Bill., Whether a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not is to be, decided by the Speaker of Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha may, discuss the Annual Financial Statement. It has no power to, vote on the Demands for Grants., (b) Article 31B of the Constitution of India ensured that any law, in the 9th Schedule could not be challenged in courts and, Government can rationalize its programme of social, engineering by reforming land and agrarian laws. In other
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , words laws under Ninth Schedule are beyond the purview of, judicial review even though they violate fundamental rights, enshrined under part III of the Constitution. On the one, hand considerable power was given to legislature under, Article 31B and on the other hand the power of judiciary, was curtailed, this is the starting point of tussle between, legislature and judiciary., 97. (c) In the Rajya Sabha the states have been given seats on, the basis of population and economic position., 98. (d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha may be removed from his office, by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a, majority of all the then members of the House. No resolution, for the purpose of removal of the Speaker or the Dy., Speaker shall be moved unless at least fourteen days, notice has been given of the intention to move the, resolution., 99. (d) Election of Speaker shall be held on such date as the, President may fix, and the Secretary-General shall send, notice of this dateto every member., The election of a Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as, the Speaker may fix and the Secretary-General shall send, notice of this dateto every member., At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed,, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the, Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be, chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice, shall be seconded by a third member and shall be, accompanied by a statement by the member whose name, is proposed in the notice that he is willing to serve as, Deputy Speaker, if elected., 100. (b) Our Parliamentary system blends the legislative and the, executive organs of the State in as much as the executive, power is wielded by a group of Members of the Legislature, who command majority in the Lok Sabha., 101. (d) The Constitution empowers Parliament of India to make, laws on the matters reserved for States (States List).
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , However, this can only be done if Rajya Sabha first passes, a resolution by two-thirds supermajority granting such a, power to the Union Parliament. The union government, cannot make a law on a matter reserved for states without, an authorisation from Rajya Sabha.So the House of People, does not have special powers with respect to the state list., 102. (b) The subject matter of the motion must have a direct or, indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the, Union Government and must precisely pinpoint the failure of, the Government of India in the performance of its duties in, accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law., 103. (c) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the vice-presiding, officer of the Lok Sabha.He/She is elected from amongst, the members. It acquired a more prominent position after, 1950. He holds office till either he ceases to be a member of, the Lok Sabha or he himself resigns., 104. (c) Article 111 of the Indian constitution stipulates that the, President shall give assent to a bill passed by both houses, of the parliament or return the bill as soon as possible for, reconsideration with his recommendation., 105. (c) In recognizing a parliamentary party or group, the speaker, shall take into consideration the following principles:, An association of members who propose to form a parliamentary, party:, 1. Shall have an association of members who have a distinct, programme of parliamentary work, 2. Shall have an organization both inside and outside the house, 3. Shall have at least a strength equal to the quorum fixed to, constitute a sitting of the house i.e one tenth of the total, number of members of the house., 106. (a) Article 2- (Admission or establishment of new States), Parliament may by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit., Article 3- Formation of new States and alteration of areas,, boundaries or names of existing States.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Amendment in the First and Fourth schedule can be done, through constitution amendment bill., 107. (a) Article 79- There shall be a Parliament for the Union which, shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known, respectively as the council of States and the House of the, People., Article 54 - The President shall be elected by the members of an, electoral college consisting of the elected members of both, Houses of Parliament; and the elected members of the, Legislative Assemblies of the States., 108. (d) Article 248- Parliament has exclusive power to make any, law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the, Concurrent List or State List., Article 252- If it appears to the Legislatures of two or more States, to be desirable that any of the matters with respect to which, Parliament has no power to make laws for the States except, as provided in Articles 249 and 250 should be regulated in, such States by Parliament by law., Article 253- Legislation for giving effect to international, agreements notwithstanding anything in the foregoing, provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make, any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for, implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any, other country or countries or any decision made at any, international conference, association or other body., 109. (d) The Committee on Empowerment of Women was, constituted on 29th April 1997. The Committee consists of, 30 Members of whom 20 are nominated by the Speaker, from amongst the Members of Lok Sabha and 10 are, nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha from amongst the, Members of the Rajya Sabha. A Minister cannot be, nominated a Member of the Committee. The term of the, Committee does not exceed one year. One of the functions, of the committee is to report on the working of the welfare, programmes for the women.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 110. (b) Article 108 of the Constitution empowers the President to, summon a joint session of both houses “for the purpose of, deliberating and voting on the Bill”. In India, if a bill has, been rejected by any house of the parliament and if more, than six months have elapsed, the President may summon, a joint session for purpose of passing the bill. If at the joint, sitting the Bill is passed with or without amendments with a, majority of total number of members of the two Houses, present and voting, it shall be deemed to be passed by both, the Houses. It is not frequently restored to establish the, supremacy of the Lok Sabha., 111. (c) The recommendation of the president is required for, introduction of money bills or for moving amendments to, acts relating to financial matters, except those making, provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax. So, for, option (c) president’s recommendation is not required., 112. (d) Any act done under martial law cannot be validated by, parliament by law., 113. (d), 114. (d) In case of a deadlock due to disagreement between the two, Houses on a Bill, an extraordinary situation arises which is, resolved by both the Houses sitting together.which is, resolved by both the Houses sitting together.The, Constitution empowers the President to summon a ‘joint, sitting’ of both the Houses. Article 108 of the constitution, deals with the Joint sitting of both Houses., 115. (d), 116. (b) Democratic Republic, Parliamentary form of government, and vesting of absolute power in people are the, fundamental features of Indian Constitution., 117. (c), 118. (c), 119. (b) If the Rajya Sabha passes any of the subjects of the state, list with 2/3 majority of the House, declaring the subjects, to have national importance then According to Art. 249 of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 120., 121., , 122., 123., 124., 125., , 126., 127., , the Constitution parliament acquire the power to make, laws., (b) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Legislative, Assembly of a state except on the recommendations of, the Governor of the state., (c) The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Parliament of, India. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution although, members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for staggered, six-year terms. One third of the members retire every two, years. The minimum age required for eligible to be a, member of Rajya Sabha is 30., (a) The Public Accounts Committee is constituted by, Parliament for one year term. The Chairman is appointed, by the Speaker of Lok Sabha amongst its members., (d) Chandra Shekhar was member of Lok Sabha from Ballia, during his tenure as PM of India., (d) P.A. Sangma was the first tribal Speaker of Lok Sabha., He hailed from a small tribal village in Meghalaya., (d) Unlike the US, in India, the residuary powers are with the, centre (Parliament). Unlike Indian Rajya Sabha, the US, second chamber-senate does not have any nominated, members., (c) US senate holds the record for the longest speeches by the, members., (b), , Lok Sabha, Constituencies, Total Constituencies, , 543, , General Constituencies 423, Schedule Caste, Constituencies, , 79, , Constituencies, , 41
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 128. (b) I. Subject to legislation by parliament, the power to declare, any area as a ‘Scheduled area’ is given to the President., IV. The executive power of the Union shall extend to giving, directions to the respective states regarding administration, of the ‘Scheduled Areas’., 129. (b) United Progressive Alliance-54 Seats and 23 percent vote, share., 130. (c) There are 3 Rajya Sabha members from uttarakhand., Name, Party, Shri Mahendra, Indian National Congress, Singh Mahra, Shri Tarun Vijay, Bhartiya Janta Party, Shri Raj Baffar, Indian National Congress, 131. (d) Members of a Trade Union may be considered a pressure, Group. A pressure group can be described as an organised, group that does not put up candidates for election, but, seeks to influence government policy or legislation., 132. (a) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it, would be in the national interest for the parliament to, legislate, with, respect, to, a, matter, in, the, state., Resolutions approving in the Proclamation of, emergency are passed by both the houses and the, president., 133. (d) The electoral Collect of the vice President has, 1. Elected members of the Lok Sabha, 2. Nominated members of Lok Sabha, 3. Elected members of Rajya Sabha, 4. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha, 134. (d) If for a period of sixty days a member of either House of, Parliament is without permission of the House absent from, all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat, vacant., 135. (d) The privileges enjoyed by members of a parliament are, 1. Freedom from arrest with certain riders, 2. Exemption from attendance
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3. Freedom of speech, 136. (d) Adjournment Motion is the procedure for adjournment of, the business of the House for the purpose of discussing a, definite matter of urgent public importance, which can be, moved with the consent of the speaker., 137. (b) Members of Parliament enjoy the Privilege of freedom from, arrest in Civil Cases., 138. (b) There are 5 members of Lok Sabha which are elected from, uttarakhand., 139. (d) Speaker does not take oath of the office., 140. (a) Tenure of 5th Lok Sabha = March 16, 1971 till January 18,, 1977, 141. (d) Sitting of Lok Sabha can be terminated by Adjournment, Sine die, prorogation, dissolution of the house., 142. (b) Adjournment Sine die means “without assigning a day for a, further meeting or hearing”. To adjourn an assembly sine, die is to adjourn it for an indefinite period. A legislative body, adjourns sine die when it adjourns without appointing a day, on which to appear or assemble again., 143. (d), 144. (d), 145. (c) The form of oath of office for a minister for the union of, India is enshrined in the third schedule of the Constitution., In first schedule List of States & Union Territories is, mentioned. The second schedule is about salary of, President, Governors, chief Judges, Judges of High court, and supreme court, comptroller and Auditor General of, India. Fourth schedule is for allocation of seats for each, state of India in Rajya Sabha., 146. (b) Executive powers of the Indian Union refers to the, President., 147. (d) Impeachment of President by the two houses of Parliament, under article 61 mentioned., 148. (a) All the executive powers are vested with Prime Minister., 149. (d) The President of India in his oath or affirmation swears to, faithfully execute the office, to preserve and protect
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , constitution law and to devote himself to the service of the, people of India. The President is required to make and, subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of India (or in, his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court),, an oath or affirmation that he/she shall protect, preserve, and defend the Constitution., 150. (a) The President of India can proclaim the failure of the, constitutional machinery in Jammu and Kashmir but the, Proclamation should be grounded under the provision of the, state constitution and not Indian constitution., 151. (b) The charge of violation of constitution by the president of, India for his impeachment can’t be preferred by a House, unless a resolution containing proposal to prefer such, charge is moved after at least fourteen days notice in writing, signed by not less than one fourth of the total number of the, members of that house., 152. (c) As per Article 56, “Term of office of President (1) The, President shall hold office for a term of five years from the, date on which he enters upon his office under various, provision., (2) Any resignation addressed under clause (a)of the proviso to, clause (1) shall forthwith be communicated by him to the, Speaker of the House of the People.”, 153. (b) As mentioned in Article 72 of Indian Constitution, the, President is empowered with the powers to grant pardons in, the following situations:, •, Punishment is for offence against Union Law, •, Punishment is by a Military Court, •, Sentence is that of death, •, The executive power is vested mainly in the President of India,, as per Article 53 (1) of the constitution. Article 75 (1) of the, Constitution of India reads: “The Prime Minister shall be, appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be, appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime, Minister.”
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , The Attorney General for India is the Indian government’s chief, legal advisor, and its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court, of India. He is appointed by the President of India under, Article 76(1) of the Constitution and holds office during the, pleasure of the President., 154. (c), 155 (a) The Constitution Provides for a Council of Ministers to aid, and advise the President in the exercise of his functions., (Art 74)., 156. (d) Department of women and child development is not a, department under Ministry of Human Resource, Development., 157. (a) Under article 102 mentioned the decision of the president, shall be final. President and Governor decides the office of, profit., 158. (b) The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be, filled up within 6 months., 159. (b) President has the right to seek advisory opinion of the, supreme court of India., 160. (b) By the Parliament the President of India can be impeached., The President may be removed before the expiry of the, term through impeachment., 161. (d) The prime Minister of India is the chief of government, chief, advisor to the President of India, head of the Council of, Ministers and the leader of the majority party in parliament., 162. (b) Chief Justice of India officiates position of President and, Vice-President when there seats vacant., 163. (a) V.V. Giri, the President of India was associated with trade, Union movement. Varahagiri Venkata Giri, commonly known, as V. V. Giri, was the fourth President of the Republic of, India from 24 August 1969 to 23 August 1974., 164. (d) As per article 74 of Indian constitution the council of, ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha., 165. (a) The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no-confidence, motion is passed by a majority of members of Lok Sabha. A, motion of no confidence is primarily a statement or vote
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 166. (c), 167. (c), 168. (b), 169. (d), 170. (a), , 171. (c), 172. (b), 173. (c), , 174. (c), , 175. (d), 176. (a), 177. (d), , which states that a person in a superior position - be it, government, managerial, etc., Dr. Manmohan Singh Rajya Sabha MP and was former, finance minister, former governor of RBI., President does not characterize the combination of, Presidential and Republican governmental system., The President can declare three types of emergencies:national, state, financial under articles 352, 356 & 360 in, addition to promulgating ordinances under article 123., There is no restriction for President of India seeking for reelection., Dr. Radhakrishnan held the office of the Vice-President of, India for two consecutive terms. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, was an Indian philosopher and statesman who was the first, Vice President of India and the second President of India, from 1962 to 1967., The prime minister remains in office so long as he enjoys, the confidence of Lok sabha., Proposal of dismissal of the Vice president can be, presented in Rajya Sabha., Article 56 of the Indian Constitution says that the President, shall hold office for a term of five years from the date he, takes up his post. Article 56 also provided that the President, may, by writing under his hand addressed to the VicePresident, resign his office., Chaudhary Charan Singh was the Prime Minister who, resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok, Sabha. Chaudhuri Charan Singh was the sixth Prime, Minister, serving from 28 July 1979 until 14 January 1980., Union Executive consists of the President, the VicePresident, the Price Minister and Council of Ministers and, the Attorney General., members of both houses of parliament., The given bodies like NDC, Interstate council, NWRC and, NIC are headed by the Prime Minister of India. NDC-The, National Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 178. (a), 179. (b), , 180. (b), , 181. (a), , 182. (d), , Parishad is the apex body for decision making and, deliberations on development matters in India, presided, over by the Prime Minister. It was set up on 6 August 1952, to strengthen and mobilize the efforts and resources of the, nation in support of the Plan, to promote common economic, policies in all vital spheres, and to ensure the balanced and, rapid development of all parts of the country. Prime Minister, Dr. Manmohan Singh has reconstituted the Inter-State, Council. NWRC- National Water Resources Council was set, up by the Government of India in March 1983. The Prime, Minister is the Chairman. The National Integration Council, (NIC) is a group of senior politicians and public figures in, India that looks for ways to address the problems of, communalism, casteism and regionalism., Since the cabinet is a part of the council of ministers, it, never can be superior to that., Department of official languages is subordinate office of the, Ministry of Home affairs. It deals with the implementation of, the provisions of the Constitution relating to official, languages and the provisions of the Official Languages Act,, 1963., The ministry / department of government of India is created, by the PM on the advice of cabinet secretary. The, administrative head of the cabinet secretariat is also the exofficio chairman of the civil services board., It must state the grounds on which it is based. Censure, motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an, individual minister or a group of Ministers. “Censure” is, meant to show disapproval and does not result in the, resignation of ministers. The censure motion can be against, an individual minister or a group of ministers., State legislature assemblies, both houses of the parliament, form part of the electoral college for the election of the, president. An electoral college is a set of electors who are, selected to elect a candidate to a particular office. Often, these represent different organizations or entities, with each
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 183. (a), 184. (b), , 185. (b), , 186. (d), , 187. (b), , 188. (b), , 189. (d), , organization or entity represented by a particular number of, electors or with votes weighted in a particular way., He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a noconfidence motion., President can promulgate ordinances when the parliament, is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by, the parliament within six weeks from its re-assembly. Article, 123 in the Constitution of India 1949 describes the power of, President to promulgate Ordinances during recess of, Parliament. If at any time, except when both Houses of, Parliament are in session, the President is satisfied that, circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to, take immediate action, he may promulgate such Ordinance, as the circumstances appear to him to require., The value of the vote of an electing member of a, parliament can be calculated by dividing the total value of, the votes of all elected MLAs by the total number of elected, MPs., J.L Nehru was in PM’s office for 4th term represented, ‘Phulpur’ near Allahabad as a member of Parliament., Morarji Desai of Janta party was the first non-congress PM, of India assumed the office on march 24, 1977., Mohd. Hidayatullah was the sixth vice president of India, and served from 1979 to 1984. He was also the 11th chief, justice of India, from 1988 to 1970. Shankar Dayal Sharma, was the 8th vice president of India and served under R, Venkataraman. He was also the 9th President of India, from, 1992 to 1997., Department of border management is a department of, ministry of Home affairs of the union minister. Department of, Border Management is dealing with management of, borders, including coastal borders., The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president and, the other Ministers shall be appointed by the president on, the advice of the PM(Article 75(1)). The cabinet secretariat, is under the direct charge of the P.M.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 190. (b) The government of India consists of a number of, ministers/departments for its administration, each ministry, assigned to a minister who runs it with the assistance of a, secretary in charge of the particular ministry., 191. (a), 192. (c), 193. (c) Vice president as the chairman of the upper house does, not come under the basic structure of parliamentary system., 194. (a) Twelve of Rajya Sabha members are nominated by the, President from persons who have earned distinction in the, fields of literature, art, science and social service. Rajya, Sabha is a permanent body. It is not subject to dissolution, but one-third of its members retire every two years. Rajya, Sabha was duly constituted for the first time on April 3, 1952, and it held its first sitting on May 13, that year., 195. (b) Article 72 mentions:, (1) The President shall have the power to grant pardons, reprieves,, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or, commute the sentence of any person convicted of any, offence—, (a) in all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court, Martial;, (b) in all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence, against any law relating to a matter to which the executive, power of the Union extends;, (c) in all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death., Thus, Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardons etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain, cases., 196. (b) India’s head of state is the president who is elected to a, five-year renewable term by an electoral college consisting, of the elected members of both houses of parliament and, the elected members of the legislative assemblies of all the, states. Effective executive power rests with the Council of, Ministers, headed by the prime minister, who is chosen by
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha and is, formally appointed by the president., Whenever the office becomes vacant, the new President is, chosen by an electoral college consisting of the elected, members of both houses of Parliament (M.P.), the elected, members of the State Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan, Sabha) of all States and the elected members of the, legislative assemblies (M.L.A.) of two Union Territories i.e.,, National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi and Union Territory, of Puducherry., 197. (b), 1. According to Article 61, when a President is to be impeached for, violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred, by either House of Parliament., 2. No such charge shall be preferred unless (a) the proposal to prefer such charge is contained in a resolution, which has been moved after at least fourteen days’ notice in, writing signed by not less than one-fourth of the total, number of members of the House has been given of their, intention to move the resolution, and, (b) such resolution has been passed by a majority of not less than, two-thirds of the total membership of the House., 198. (b) According Article 56(1) in the Constitution of India, (1) The President shall hold office for a term of five years from the, date on which he enters upon his office: Provided that, (a) the President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the, Vice President, resign his office;, (b) the President may, for violation of the constitution, be removed, from office by impeachment in the manner provided in, Article 61:, (c) the President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term,, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his, office, 199. (a) Late B. R. Ambedkar stated as under in the Constituent, Assembly: “The President occupies the same position as, the King under the English Constitution. In a parliamentary
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , system of Government, the Executive is responsible to the, Legislature. The Council of Ministers hold their offices not, by the grace of the President (or literally during the pleasure, of the President) but because of the confidence of, Parliament which they enjoy., 200. (c) The National Integration Council (NIC) is a group of senior, politicians and public figures in India that looks for ways to, address the problems of communalism, casteism and, regionalism is chaired by Prime Minister. The Prime Minister, is the Chairman of National Water Resources Council. The, National Development Council (NDC) or the Rashtriya Vikas, Parishad is the apex body for decision making and, deliberations on development matters in India, presided, over by the Prime Minister. The Inter-State Council shall, consist of:, (a) Prime Minister - Chairman, (b) Chief Ministers of all States - Member, (c) Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a Legislative Assembly, and Administrators of UTs not having a Legislative, Assembly - Member, (d) Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers to, be nominated by the Prime Minister – Member, 201. (c) Narasimha Rao’s tenure as Chief Minister of Andhra, Pradesh is well remembered even today for his land, reforms and strict implementation of land ceiling act in, Telangana region. Charan Singh became Chief Minister of, Uttar Pradesh in 1967, and later in 1970. Deve Gowda was, the 14th Chief Minister of Karnataka from 1994 to 1996. V.P., Singh was appointed by Indira Gandhi as the Chief Minister, of Uttar Pradesh in 1980, when Gandhi was re-elected after, the Janata interlude. Before the independence of India,, Morarji Desai became Bombay’s Home Minister and later, was elected as Chief Minister of Bombay State in 1952., 202. (b) The collective responsibility under Article 75 of the, Constitution of India has two meanings: (I) All members of a, Government are unanimous in support of its policies, (II)
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , The ministers, who had an opportunity to speak for or, against the policies in the cabinet are thereby personally, and morally responsible for its success and failure., The prime minister selects and can dismiss other members of the, cabinet; allocates posts to members within the Government;, is the presiding member and chairman of the cabinet and is, responsible for bringing proposal of legislation., 203. (a) Presidents, Vice Presidents, Prime Ministers etc., (i) Sh. V.V. Giri, (Term of Office 13.5.1967 to 3.5.1969), (ii) Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak, (Term of Office 31.8.1969 to 30.8.1974), (iii) Sh. B.D.Jatti, (Term of Office 31.8.1974 to 30.8.1979), (iv) Sh. M. Hidayatullah, (Term of Office 31.8.1979 to 30.8.1984), 204. (c) The ministry of environment and forest government of, India, is Implementing a GEF/World Bank funded project on, capacity building on biosafety in context of Cartagena, Protocol, 205. (a) India on 1st April 2013 started visa on arrival (VOA) facility, for the senior citizen of Pakistan and will allow a Pakistan, resident in India for a maximum period of 45 days. It is a, single entry visa., 206. (b) Single foreigners as well as the gay couples would not be, eligible for having the Indian surrogate., 207. (d) The rights of Indian President (i) To address the Council of Ministers, (ii) To send message to the Council of Ministers., (iii) To Call for information regarding proposals of Legislation., (iv) The president will receive all decisions of the council of Ministers, concerned with administration of the Union., 208. (c) Vishwanath Pratap Singh, H.D. Deve Gowda, Atal Bihari, Vajpayee were defeated by a vote of ‘no confidence’., 209. (a) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha only. On the, other hand, President can nominate 12 member in Rajya
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Sabha., 210. (c) In India, “the Emergency” refers to a 21-month period in, 1975-77 when Prime Minister Indira Gandhiunilaterally had, a, state, of, emergency, declared, across, the, country.Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed was the President at that, time., 211. (b) Gulzarilal Nanda became the Prime Minister of India for two, short periods following the deaths of Jawaharlal Nehru in, 1964 and Lal Bahadur Shastri in 1966., 212. (b) Article 65 of the Indian Constitution says that while acting, as president or discharging the functions of president, the, Vice President does not perform the duties of the office of, the chairman of Rajya sabha., Article 123 of the Constitution grants the President certain law, making powers to promulgate Ordinances when either of, the two Houses of Parliament is not in session and hence it, is not possible to enact laws in the Parliament., 213. (d) The Union executive consists of the President, the VicePresident, and the Council of Ministers with the Prime, Minister as the head to aid and advise the President.He, may, by writing under his hand addressed to the VicePresident, resign his office (Article 61). According to article, 52,executive power of the Union is vested in the President., 214. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first Prime Minister of, Indiaon 15 August 1947, and chose 15 other members for, his cabinet in which B. R. Ambedkar was the first law, minister of India., 215. (c) Liaquat Ali Khan became the first Finance Minister of India, in the Interim Government during 1946-1947., 216. (b) Department of Official language(Raj Bhasha Vibhag), comes under Ministry of Home affairs., 217. (b) The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules,, 1961 are made by the President of India under Article 77 of, the Constitution for the allocation of business of the, Government of India. The Ministries/Departments of the, Government are created by the President on the advice of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , the Prime Minister under these Rules. The Cabinet, Secretary is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services, Board of the Republic of India., 218. (b) The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests, with the Office of the Registrar General and Census, Commissioner, India under Ministry of Home Affairs,, Government of India., 219. (a) Correct chronological order of the Vice-Presidents of India, is as follows:, 1. V.V .Giri - 1967, 2. G.S Pathak 1969, 3. B.D Jatti-1974, 4. M Hidayatullah- 1979, 220. (b) According to Article 53(b) of the Indian Constitution the, supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union, shall be vested in the President and the exercise thereof, shall be regulated by law., 221. (b) ., P V Narasimha Rao could not vote for, himself during vote of confidence., 222. (c) Dr. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy was the sixth President of India., After the death of Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed in office,Reddy, was elected unopposed. He was only President to be, elected thus, after being unanimously supported by all, political parties including the opposition Congress party. He, was elected president on 21 July 1977., 223. (c) He/she cannot take part in the voting when a vote of no, confidence is under consideration., 224. (c) OnAugust 20, 1979, Charan Singh resigned without moving, the motion after the Congress withdrew support., 225. (a) Under Article 61, the President of India can be removed, from the office by a process of impeachment for the, violation of the Constitution. The impeachment is to be, initiated by either House of Parliament., 226. (c) Irrespective of the fact that a number of seats may have to, be filled, this system postulates one vote for each voter with, the reservation that this single vote is transferred to other
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , candidates. This is the reason why this system is known as, “single transferable vote system.”, 227. (d) According to Article 78 it shall be the duty of the Prime, Minister(a) to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of, Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of, the union and proposals for legislation;, (b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the, affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the, President may call for;, (c) if the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of the, Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has, been taken by a Minister;, 228. (c) The Vice-President is elected by an Electoral College,, which consists of the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya, Sabha (both elected and nominated members)., 229. (d) Cabinet collective responsibility is a tradition in, parliamentary governments in which the prime minister is, responsible for appointing the cabinet ministers. It is the, Prime Minister who enforces collective responsibility, amongst the Ministers through his ultimate power to dismiss, a Minister. No person shall be nominated to the cabinet, except on the advice of the Prime Minister. Secondly, no, person shall be retained as a Member of the Cabinet if the, Prime Minister says that he should be dismissed. In India, a, Motion of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok, Sabha., 230. (b) According to article 112,the President shall in respect of, every financial year cause to be laid before both the Houses, of Parliament a statement of the estimated receipts and, expenditure of the Government of India for that year, in this, Part referred to as the annual financial statement., 231. (b) Ministry of Defence comprises of four Departments as, Department of Defence (DOD), Department of Defence, Production (DDP), Department of Defence Research &
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Development (DDR&D) and Department of Ex-Servicemen, Welfare ., 232. (c) Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a, state of war is the responsibility of Ministry of External, Affairs., 233. (a) Option (a), is not correct. Under Article 72 of the, Indian Constitution the Indian President is empowered to, grant pardon, he can reprieve, respite or remit the, punishment in all cases where the punishment or sentence, is by a court martial., 234. (c), 235. (a), 236. (c), 237. (a) Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok, Sabha or lower house .Therefore If a no confidence motion, is passed by majority of members of Lok Sabha , the, ministry loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha and must, resign., 238. (d) The Governor of a State is appointed by the President., According to Article 155 the Governor is appointed by, president by warrant under his hand and seal., 239. (d) Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok, Sabha or lower house, 240. (a) The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the, Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of, Parliament that is Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Electoral, college works in accordance with the system of proportional, representation by means of the single transferable vote, through secret ballot., 241. (a) President can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on, the question of law or fact which has arisen or is likely to, arise of such nature. Article 143 of the Constitution of India, directs it as a duty upon the Supreme Court to advise the, President on such matter., 242. (b) For impeachment of President of India at least fourteen, days’ notice in writing is required.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 243. (a) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court acts as the, President of India in the absence of both the President of, India and the Vice-President of India., 244. (c) Patronage System is a practice in which a political party,, after winning an election, gives government civil service, jobs to its supporters, friends and relatives as a reward for, working toward victory, and as an incentive to keep working, for the party., 245. (a) A presidential system of government is a system of, government where an executive branch is led by a, president who serves as both head of state and head of, government. America is an ideal example of the presidential, form of government, 246. (d) Vice-Presidents of India and America are elected for a fixed, term. They both are the presiding officers of the upper, house and they have a casting vote in case of a tie., 247. (b), List - I, (Presidents of India), (a) Varahgiri Venkatgiri, , 248., 249., 250., 251., , List - II, (Tenure), August 1969 - Agust, 1974, (b) Dr. Zakir Hussain, May 1967 - May 1969, (c) R. Venkatraman, July 1987 - July 1992, (d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy, July 1977 - July 1982, (b) (K.R. Narayanan granted his consent, to the Bill of creation, of Uttrakhand state., (b) Returning back a money bill for reconsideration is not a, constitutional prerogative of the president of India., (a) The states and the Central Government derive power from, the constitution of India., (a) According to the article 53(1) the executive power of the, union shall vested in the President and shall be exercised, by him either directly or through officers subordinate to him, in accordance with this constitution .
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 252. (c) Incase a President dies while in office, the vice – president, acts as President for a maximum period of 6 months., 253. (b) Whereas attorney general for India is appointed by the, President under Article 76 (1) of the constitution, the, Solicitor general of India is appointed to assit the attorney, general along with four additional solicitors general by the, Appointments Committee of the cabinet., 254. (a) As per the Constitutional provisions, The president of India, cannot use the power of absolute veto, suspensive veto and, pocket veto in case of giving assent to the Money Bill., 255. (a) The Prime Minister is appointed by the President. All other, ministers are appointed by the president upon the advice of, the Prime Minister. The ministers hold office during the, Pleasure of the President., 256. (d) Pardon, Commutation, Remission, Reprieve, Respite, consists in the power “To Pardon” of President., 257. (c) In the election of President of India–, 1. All elected MPs of both the houses and MLAs of legislative, assemblies, including Delhi and Puducherry are part of, electoral college of the President., 2. Unlike in voting by elected representatives in Legislative, Assemblies and Parliament, Party Whips cannot be issued, in voting for presidential elections., 258. (c) In relation to the election of President of India–, 1. The total value of votes in president election is about 10,98,903, votes with each MP Carrying a vote value of 708. The vote, weight of an MLA depends on the population of the state he, or she represents., 2. For the purpose of calculation of value of votes of MPs/MLAs in, president’s Election, the population of the census 1971 is, considered., 259. (a) Since population figures are dynamic and keep changing, every year, it has been decided through the 84th, Constitutional Amendment, that until the population figures, for the first census after 2026 are published (in other words,, 2031 census), the population of the States for the purpose
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , of this calculation will mean the population as per the 1971, census., 260. (a) The formula used to calculate the value of a vote of an, MLA of the state is–, Population of the state as per census 1971, No. of assembly Seats × 100, 261. (a) All the members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha votes in, the election of Vice–President of India., 262. (a) If the election of the President of India is declared void by, the Supreme Court, the acts performed by President, incumbent before the date of such decision of court remain, valid., 263. (d) Ministers who can attend the meetings of the cabinet are, Cabinet Minister, Minister of State Independent Charge,, Minister of State, Deputy Minister., 264. (a) The electoral college of the President of India contains, elected members of the Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabh, Eacha, State Vidhan Sabha members and each union territory, possessing an assembly., 265. (c) New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution,, page 91: Parliamentary system is also known as Cabinet, Government. It provides for collective responsibility of the, executive to the legislature.Hence answer “C”., 266. (b) NCERT Class 9: Democratic Politics: Chapter 5: Working of, the institutions, page 87, · Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and, discuss everything, (hence) the decisions are taken in, Cabinet meetings. That is why parliamentary, democracy in most countries is often known as the, Cabinet form of government. Hence “B” is the answer., 267. (a) Judiciary is the guardian of fundamental rights., 268. (a) Article 137 of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court, to review its own judgement or order., Article 130 deals, with seat of supreme court. Article 138, enlargement of the jurisdiction of the supreme court
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , mentioned. Article 139 refers conferment on the supreme, court of powers to issue certain writs., 269. (c) The order of precedence of the functionaries given in the, options are chief justice of India> cabinet Minister of the, Union > Chief Election commissioner > Cabinet secretary., 270. (c) The legislative excess of parliament and state assemblies, checked by judicial review of Supreme Court., 271. (b) The President of India takes the oath of upholding the, constitution and the law. The judges of the Supreme Court, affirm to take faith in and swear allegiance to the Indian, Constitution. The MPs or the members of Parliament swear, to faithfully discharge their duties. The Ministers for the, Union take an oath towards secrecy of information., 272. (d), 273. (c) The ‘judicial review’ function of the Supreme Court means, to examine the constitutional validity of laws. Judicial review is, the doctrine under which legislative and executive actions are, subject to review (and possible invalidation) by the judiciary., 274. (c) According to Article 71 of the Constitution, all doubts and, disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a, President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and, decided by the Supreme Court., 275. (c) There are 5 types of writs which can be issued by the, Supreme Court. They are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus,, Prohibition, Certiorari, & Quo Warranto., 276. (d) The Supreme Court has originally jurisdiction i.e. cases, which can originate with the Supreme Court alone over, disputes between (a) the Government of India and one or, more states (b) the Government of India and any state and, states on one side and one or more state on the other, (c) two or more states., 277. (d) Because the Supreme Court is given the power to protect,, safeguard and uphold the Constitution and empowered to, declare a law null and void if it is found to be inconsistent, with the Constitution.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 278. (d) A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed under the, Constitution only on grounds of proven misconduct or, incapacity and by an order of the President of India, after a, notice signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha, (House of the People) or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha, (Council of the States) is passed by a two-third majority in, each House of the Parliament., 279. (b) Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked with judicial, activism. Judicial review is a process under which, executive and legislative actions are subject to review by, the judiciary., 280. (c) Article 124 of the Constitution provides that the Supreme, Court shall consist of a Chief Justice and not more than, seven judges. The Parliament is empowered to increase, the number of judges by law., 281. (c) The President of India appoints the Chief Justice of, Supreme court as per the following procedure., 1. The Government of India proposes the name of the most senior, Judge of the Supreme Court of India, for the Post of, Chief Justice of India, to the President of India., 2. The President of India gives approval to this name, after, consultation with the other Judges of the Supreme, Court and the Judges of State High Courts, as the, President may think necessary., 282. (b) According to Article 143 of the Constitution of India, the, President of India can request the Supreme Court of India, to provide its advice on certain matters. This procedure is, called “Presidential Reference”., 283. (d) The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide, disputes between the centre and the states falls under its, original jurisdiction. The original jurisdiction of a court is the, power to hear a case for the first time, as opposed to, appellate jurisdiction, when a court has the power to review, a lower court’s decision., Advisory jurisdiction mentioned under article 143. Appellate, jurisdiction comes under article 132. It is the power of a
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , higher court to review decisions and change outcomes of, decisions of lower court. In constitutional jurisdiction the, power and authority conferred upon a court or judge to, pronounce the sentence of law, provided by law upon a, state of facts., 284. (b) Sovereignty of Indian parliament is restricted by judicial, review. The concept also holds that the legislative body, may change or repeal any previous legislation, and so that, it is not bound by written law (in some cases, even a, constitution) or by precedent., 285. (a) The CJI, Justice Hidayatullah then became the acting, President of India. When the newly elected President took, office a month later, Justice Hidayatullah reverted as the, Chief Justice of India., P.M. Bhagwati - 17th Chief Justice of India (1985-1986), Mehar Chand Mahajan - Ist Prime minister of Jammu & Kashmir, 3rd Chief Justice of India (1954), •, B.K. Mukharjee - 4th Chief Justice of India (1954-1956), 286. (a) The Indian Constitution provides for the appointment of Ad, hoc judge in supreme court. A Judge of a High Court duly, qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court, to be designated by the Chief Justice of India., 287. (c) Article 125 of the Indian Constitution leaves it to the Indian, Parliament to determine the salary, other allowances, leave, of absence, pension, etc. of the Supreme Court judges., 288. (c) A court of record is a court whose acts and proceedings, are enrolled for perpetual memory and testimony. These, records are used with a high authority and their truth cannot, be questioned. In Indian constitution article 129 makes the, Supreme Court the ‘court of record”. Article 215 empowers, the High Courts of the states to be courts of record., 289. (d) The system of judicial review exists in India and U.S.A., Judicial review is the power of a court to review the, constitutionality of a statute or treaty, or to review an, administrative regulation for consistency with either a, statute, a treaty, or the Constitution itself.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , In U.K. tribunal system is part of the administrative justice., 290. (a) Article 137 of the constitution permits the supreme court to, review its own judgment or order. Article 137 of the, Constitution provides that subject to provisions of any law, and rule made under Article 145 the Supreme Court of, India has the power to review any judgement pronounced, (or order made) by it., Article 138 - Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme, court., Article 139 - Conferment on the supreme court of powers to, certain writes., Article 140 - Ancillary powers of supreme court., 291. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the guardian of, the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final interpreter of the, Constitution. The interpretation of the Constitution given by, the Supreme Court is to be respected. Council court is a, legislative body of Local bodies. i.e. Bar council of India., 292. (b) Supreme Court has the power to transfer any Case, appeal, or other proceedings from High Court or other court in one, State to a High Court or other civil court in any other State., 293. (d) The Supreme Court of India is regarded as the guardian of, the Constitution. It is the Supreme or final interpreter of the, Constitution. The interpretation of the Constitution given by, the Supreme Court is to be respected., 294. (c) P.N. Bhagwati was the chief justice of India when public, interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to the Indian judicial, system. The concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is in, consonance with the principles enshrined in Article 39A of, the Constitution of India to protect and deliver prompt social, justice with the help of law. Justice P. N. Bhagwati and, Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer were among the first judges to, admit PILs in court., M. Hidayatullah - 11th chief Justice of India. He also served, as Vice President and acting President of India., A.M. Ahmadi - 26th Chief Justice of India. Ex vice chancellor of, AMU (1994-1997).
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , A.S. Anand - 29th Chief Justice of India (1998-2001)., 295. (a) Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Judicial, review., 296. (a) Article 131 of the Constitution of India deals with the, original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India., 297. (c) Article 143 of Indian Constitution provides an advisory, jurisdiction to the Supreme Court., 298. (b) According to Article 19(2), Nothing in sub clause (a)of, clause (1) shall affect the operation of any existing law, or, prevent the State from making any law, in so far as such law, imposes reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right, conferred by the said sub clause in the interests of the, sovereignty and integrity of India., 299. (c) In Indian constitution, the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas, Corpus’ is vested only in the Supreme Court and the High, Court. A writ of habeas corpus is a writ (court order) that, requires a person under arrest to be brought before a judge, or into court. The principle of habeas corpus ensures that a, prisoner can be released from unlawful detention., 300. (d) The Federal Court of India was a judicial body, established, in India in 1937 under the provisions of the Government of, India Act 1935, with original, appellate and advisory, jurisdiction. It functioned until 1950, when the Supreme, Court of India was established., 301. (c) Supreme Court can review cases whose decisions have, been given by High Court., 302. (c) Judicial Review is based on procedure established by law., 303. (c) Power of Union Judiciary can be amended by two-third, majority of the Parliament and the majority of states., 304. (d) Justice is essentially a moral, social & legal concept., 305. (b) The given provision came under a writ Quo Warranto, issued by the Supreme Court of India. Quo warranto, (Medieval Latin for “by what warrant?”) is a prerogative writ, requiring the person to whom it is directed to show what, authority they have for exercising some right or power (or, “franchise”) they claim to hold.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 306. (c) The main objective advocated for appointment of the, National Judicial Commission is bringing about, transparency and impartiality in the appointment of judges, of the highest level., 307. (b) By amendment of constitution number of judges in the, supreme court in India be increased., 308. (d) A is false but R is true, 309. (a) Article 124 (3) of the constitution prescribes that for, appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court a person, must be; (a), a citizen of India,(b)has been a judge of any, High Court for at least 5 years, or(c) has been an advocate, in a High Court for 10 years or is in the opinion of the, President a distinguished jurist., 310. (c) The no judges can be modified in the court supreme court, by parliament by laws., 311. (c) On the 28th of January, 1950, two days after India became, a Sovereign Democratic Republic, the Supreme Court came, into being. The inauguration took place in the Chamber of, Princes in the Parliament building which also housed India’s, Parliament, consisting of the Council of States and the, House of the People., 312. (c) Both the given sentence are correct., 313. (b) The supreme court of India enjoys original, appellate and, advisory jurisdiction., 314. (d) The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may be categorised, as original, appellate and advisory. Under the Original, Jurisdiction, the Supreme Court can settle disputes, (a), between the Centre and one or more States;, (b), between the Centre and any State or States on the, one side and one or more other States on the other; or, (c) between two or more States., 315. (c) Supreme Court can only change its position in a case, decided earlier by it where it considers for good and, substantial reasons to overrule itself on an application if the, need arises.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 316. (a) Protection of fundamental rights come under the common, jurisdiction of the supreme court and high court., 317. (b) The constitution provides that all proceedings in the, Supreme Court of India, the country’s highest court and the, High Courts, shall be in English. Parliament has the power, to alter this by law, but has not done so., 318. (a) Court’s advisory jurisdiction may be sought by the, President under Article 143 of the Constitution. This, procedure is termed as “Presidential Reference” and is, recognized as the ‘Advisory jurisdiction’ of the Court. The, minimum number of judges to sit on the Constitutional, Bench or on Bench which gives its advisory opinion on the, reference by the President must be one half of the total, strength of the Supreme Court., 319. (d) The, Directive, Principles, of, State, Policy, are, guidelines/principles given to the central and state, governments of India, to be kept in mind while framing laws, and policies. These provisions, contained in Part IV of the, Constitution of India, are not enforceable by any court., 320. (d) The fountain source of law in India is the Constitution, which, in turn, gives due recognition to statutes, case law, and customary law consistent with its dispensations., Statutes are enacted by Parliament, State Legislatures and, Union Territory Legislatures. There is also a vast body of, laws known as subordinate legislation in the form of rules,, regulations as well as by-laws made by Central and State, Governments and local authorities like Municipal, Corporations, Municipalities, Gram Panchayats and other, local bodies. This subordinate legislation is made under the, authority conferred or delegated either by Parliament or, State or Union Territory Legislature concerned. The, decisions of the Supreme Court are binding on all Courts, within the territory of India., 321. (a) Article 22 (4) provides that no law providing for preventive, detention shall authorise the detention of a person for a, longer period than 3 months unless an Advisory Board
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 322. (c), , 323. (c), , 324. (d), 325. (b), 326. (c), , 327. (c), 328. (a), , consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are, qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court, has, reported before the expiration of the said period of 3 months, that there is in it’s opinion sufficient cause for such, detention., According to Article 129 of the Constitution Supreme Court, to be a court of record. The Supreme Court shall be a court, of record and shall have all the powers of such a court, including the power to punish for contempt of itself., The Supreme Court originally consisted of a Chief-Justice, and seven other judges. In 1985, the strength was, increased. It comprises the chief justice and not more than, 25 other judge., The Judge of the Supreme Court or a High Court can be, impeached on the basis of proved misbehaviour and, incapacity., Public Interest litigation (PIL) may be linked with judicial, activism in India., The exclusive original jurisdiction of Supreme Court, extends to any dispute between the government of India, and one or more states, if and insofar as the dispute, involves any question on which the existence or extent of a, legal right depends., The supreme court has no adjudicatory jurisdiction to, change the award in the case of interstate river water, disputes and delimitation of constitution., The minimum number of judges who are to sit for the, purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be, five. If at any time it appears to the President that a question, of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of, such a nature and of such public importance that it is, expedient to obtain the opinion of the Supreme Court upon, it, he may refer the question to that Court for consideration, and the Court may, after such hearing as it thinks fit, report, to the President its opinion thereon.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 329. (c) Supreme Court has exclusive jurisdiction in relation to, federal Cases., 330. (d) Special leave petition power of the SC does not to the, judgment of any court or tribunal constituted by or under, any law relating to the Armed Forces, 331. (a) The award is binding in the arbitration among the three, types of alternative dispute resolution—arbitration,, conciliation and mediation., 332. (c) Under Article 131, disputes between different units of the, Federation will be within the exclusive original jurisdiction of, the Supreme Court. Subject to the provisions of this, Constitution, the Supreme Court shall, to the exclusion of, any other court, has original jurisdiction in any dispute, (a), between the Government of India and one or, more States; or (b) between the Government of India and, any State or States on one side and one or more other, States on the other; or (c), between two or more, States., 333. (c) The parliament can regulate the organization and, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. It can expand the, jurisdiction but can’t curtail the same., 334. (d) Any dispute between the Union and one or more states, comes under the exclusive original jurisdiction of the, Supreme Court of India., 335. (d) The Supreme Court of India ordered the state governments, and the UTs to depute female police officers in plain clothes, at the public places to check the incidents of eve-teasing., 336. (b) According to Article 136, ‘Appeal by special leave’ can be, granted against any court or tribunal including the military, court., 337. (a) The parliament is not empowered to discuss the conduct of, any judge of the Supreme Court, or a High Court but the, protection of the judge in this regard is restricted to his, official duties and does not apply to his private conduct., 338. (b) India was among the 39 countries that voted against a UN, General Assembly draft resolution which called for
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , abolishing the death Penalty., 339. (d) A unique feature of the FTCs is to prove to be cost, effective. This is so because the new courts charged with, the exclusive work of disposing of undertrial cases in the, first year of their existence. A large majority of undertrials, being those who had been booked for petty/minor offences,, they are bound to be discharged forthwith as most of them, have been behind bars for periods which are longer than, the punishment warranted by the offence. In plain terms,, this mean a huge saving in jail expenditure., 340. (b) According to Article 129 the Supreme Court to be a court of, record. The Supreme Court shall be a court of record and, shall have all the powers of such a court including the, power to punish for contempt of itself. R is not the correct, explanation of A., 341. (b) The Indian Constitution adopted the Judicial Review on, lines of U.S. Constitution. Parliament is not supreme under, the Constitution of India. Its powers are limited in a manner, that the power is divided between centre and states., Moreover the Supreme Court enjoys a position which entrusts it, with the power of reviewing the legislative enactments both, of Parliament and the State Legislatures. This grants the, court a powerful instrument of judicial review under the, constitution., 342. (d), 343. (d) The Supreme Court is the highest Court appeal from all, courts in India. It hears appeals in (i) cases involving, interpretation of the constitution- civil, Criminal or otherwise, (Article 132) (ii) Civil cases irrespective of any constitutional, issue (Article. 133) (iii) Criminal matters irrespective of any, constitutional issue (134). Besides, the Supreme Court may, grant special leave to appeal in certain cases (136)., The Supreme Court renders advice on any question of law or fact, of public importance as may be referred to it for, consideration by the President. The decision of the, Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , India. However the Supreme Court is not bound by its, earlier decision it can come to a different decision if it is, convinced that it had made an error or harmed public, interest., 344. (a) Article 44 of the constitution states about the existance of, uniform civil code for all citizens in the country., Each High court has power to issue to any person within it, jurisdiction, orders different writs including habeas corpus,, mandamus, prohibition quo-warranto and certiorari, Supreme Court of India was established on January 28,, 1950. It is the highest Judicial forum., 345. (a) Article 124 (a), of the Indian Constitution stipulates, that “There shall be a Supreme Court of India constituting of, a Chief Justice of India and, until Parliament by law, prescribes a larger number, of not more than seven other, Judges”. At present the Supreme Court consists of thirty, one judges (one chief justice and thirty other judges)., Under article 315 the UPSC consists of a chairman and other, members appointed by the president of India. The, constitution without specifying the strength of the, Commission has left the matter to the discretion of the, president, who determines its composition., 346. (b) PIL (Public Interest Litigation) writ petition can be filed in, Supreme Court under Article 32 only if a question, concerning the enforcement of a fundamental right is, involved. Under Article 226, a writ petition can be filed in a, High court whether or not a Fundamental Right is involved., Thus, it comes under appellate jurisdiction., 347. (b) The original jurisdiction of supreme court of India extends, to all cases between the Government of India and the, States of India or between Government of India and states, on side and one or more states on other side or cases, between different states., 348. (d) The U.S. court system is divided into two administratively, separate systems, the federal and the state, each of which, is independent of the executive and legislative branches of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , government. One of the unique features of the Indian, Constitution is that, notwithstanding the adoption of a, federal system and existence of Central Acts and State Acts, in their respective spheres, it has generally provided for a, single integrated system of Courts to administer both Union, and State laws. At the apex of the entire judicial system,, exists the Supreme Court of India below which are the High, Courts in each State or group of States. Below the High, Courts, lies a hierarchy of Subordinate Courts., 349. (d) Article 348 of Indian Constitution mentions the language to, be used in Supreme Court and the High Courts. According, to the article 348, the language of all proceedings in the, Supreme court and in every high court shall be English., 350. (c) The E-courts project was established in 2005. According to, the project, all the courts including taluk courts will get, computerized. As per the project in 2008, all the District, courts were initialised under the project. In 2010, all the, District courts were computerized. The project also includes, producing witnesses through video conferencing. The, judicial service centres are available in all court campuses., The Public as well as the advocates can walk in directly and, ask for the case status, stage and next hearing dates., 351. (b) original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court(Article 131):, Supreme court has power to decide disputes, · between the Government of India and one or more States, · between the Government of India and any State or States on one, side and one or more other States on the other, · between two or more States., 352. (c) All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with, the election of a President or Vice-President shall be, inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose, decision shall be final (Article 71(a) )., 353. (c) Every state in India does not have a separate High Court, .The constitution provides that parliament may by law, establish a common High Court for two or more states and, a Union Territory.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 354. (b) Article 129 declares Supreme Court as the Court of record., By court of record we mean two thing - (1) that its, proceeding will be in writing and (2) that it’s order will be, binding upon the all courts within the territory of India. Thus, its decisions have evidentiary value., 355. (d) Minimum five Judges of the Supreme Court are required for, hearing any case involving interpretation of the Constitution, or for the purpose of hearing any reference to it., 356. (b) The Judge of the Supreme Court can tender his resignation, by addressing a letter to President of India., 357. (b) The Attorney General has the right of audience in all Courts, in India. He has also the right to participate in the, proceedings of the Parliament., 358. (b) The Chief Justice of a Hight court is appointed by the, President of India with the consultation of the chief Justice, of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the state., 359. (c) The Judge of Supreme Court can serve up to 65 years of, age., 360. (c) The oath of the Judges of high court is administered by the, Governor of state and the oath of the Judges of Supreme, Court is administered by the President of India., 361. (a) The collegium system for the appointment of Judges, adopted by the Supreme Court of India in 1993., 362. (c), List - I, (a), Habeas Corpus, (b), (c), , Mandamus, Prohibition, , List - II, (iv) Let us have the body, , (iii) We command, (v) Writ to Subordinate, Courts, (d), Certiorary, (i) Be more fully in, formed, (e), QUO - Warranto, (ii) By which authority, 363. (d) Power of Judicial Review rests with the Supreme Court of, India and the High Courts.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 364. (a) New NCERT, Std. 11, Constitution at Work, Chapter-6, Judiciary, Page 139., Judicial review means the power of SC or HC to examine the, constitutionality of any law. So again, “A” is the most fitting, option.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , State Legislature, 1., , As per the Constitution of India, what is the limit prescribed for, the number of members in the Legislative Assembly of a State?, (a) 350 members, (b) 400 members, (c) 450 members, (d) 500 members, 2. Which of the following states can nominate two women, members to the legislative assembly?, (a) Himachal Pradesh, (b) Kerala, (c) Jammu and Kashmir, (d) Uttar Pradesh, 3. The Legislative Council in a State in India can be created or, abolished by the, (a) Parliament on the recommendation of a Governor of the state., (b) Parliament alone, (c) Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution of that, effect., (d) Governor of the state on the recommendation of the Council of, Ministers., 4. Consider the following statements regarding the chairman of the, Legislative Council of a state in India:, 1. He is elected by the members of the concerned state legislature., 2. He can be removed from his office by a resolution passed by a, majority of all those present and voting members of the, concerned state legislature., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 5., 1., 2., , (a), (b), (c), (d), 6., (a), (b), (c), (d), 7., (a), (b), (c), (d), 8., (a), (b), (c), (d), , 1 only, 2 only, Both 1 and 2, Neither 1 nor 2, Consider the following facts about the disallowance of State, legislation., The President has no direct power to disallow a bill passed by, the state legislative assembly., But there is a provision for disallowance of the bill, passed by, state legislative assembly, as are reserved by the State, Governor for assent of the President., 1 only, 2 only, Both 1 and 2, Neither 1 nor 2 is correct, Which one of the following states of India has passed a, legislation (1996) making the maintenance of one’s parents, mandatory?, Kerala, West Bengal, Maharashtra, Himachal Pradesh, The functions of which of the following bodies in India are limited, to advisory nature only?, Legislative Council, Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha, Legislative Assembly, Who among the following recommends to the Parliament for the, abolition of the Legislative Council in a State?, [NDA 2009-II], The President of India, The Governor of the concerned State, The Legislative Council of the concerned State, The Legislative Assembly of the concerned State
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 9., (a), (b), (c), (d), 10., (a), (b), (c), (d), 11., (a), (b), (c), (d), 12., (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), 13., (a), (b), (c), (d), , Which one of the following states does not have Vidhan, Parishad?, [NDA 2009-II], Bihar, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, ........................ state assembly has the lowest number of seats, among Indian states ., Sikkim, Goa, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, How many nominated members are there in the Legislative, Assembly of Uttarakhand (2016) ?, [UK-PSC 2016], 1, 2, 3, 4, If budget is disclosed before introducing in the Legislative, Assembly, what will happen?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], Council of Ministers will have to resign, Chief Minister will have to resign, Finance Minister will have to resign, All of the above, None of the above, Which of the following statements is incorrect about Legislative, Council?, 1/3rd of its members are elected by local bodies, President has the final power to decide about its composition, It is not subject to dissolution, Minimum strength of Legislative Council cannot be less than 40, State Executive, , 14. The Constitution of India does not contain any provision for the, impeachment of
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) The President, (b) The Governor of state, (c) The Chief Justice of India, (d) The Vice President of India, 15. Consider the following officials of India;, 1. The State election commissioner, 2. Chairman of the State Public Service Commission, 3. A judge of the High Court, 4. The Advocate General of the State., Which of the officials given above is/are appointed by the governor of, the concerned state?, (a) 1, 2 and 4 only, (b) 2 and 4 only, (c) 2, 3 and 4 only, (d) 4 only, 16. Article 156 of the constitution of India provides that a Governor, shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which, he enters upon his office. Which of the following can be deduced, from this?, 1. No Governor can be removed from his office till the completion of, this term, 2. No Governor can continue in office beyond a period of five years., (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 17. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : According to the Constitution of India, the same, person cannot function as the Governor of two or, more States at the same time., Reason (R) : Article 153 of the Constitution states that there, shall be a Governor for each State., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 18. The ‘Contingency Fund’ of the state is operated by, (a) The Governor of the state, (b) The Chief Minister of the state, (c) The State Finance Minister, (d) None of the above, 19. State Governor is appointed by, (a) Central Cabinet, (b) Chief justice of Supreme Court, (c) Speaker of Lok Sabha, (d) President of India, 20. A governor can make recommendation to the president on, which of the following issues?, 1. Removal of the members of the state PSC, 2. Removal of the judges of the High Court, 3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly, 4. Declaration of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery in, the state., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1, 2 and 3 only, (b) 2 and 4 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 21. Consider the following and select correct answer by using codes, given below, 1. The Governor shall take oath or affirmation before entering upon, his office., 2. The format of oath or affirmation is given in the Third schedule of, Indian Constitution., 3. The Governor shall make and subscribe the oath or affirmation in, the presence of Chief Justice of the High Court or in his, absence senior most judge of that Court.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 4., , The process of oath and affirmation is given in the Article 159 of, Indian Constitution., Codes:, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1, 3 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 22. Select the constitutional duties of the Chief Minister from, following by using codes given below, 1. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor all decisions, of the Council of Ministers related to the administration of the, affairs of the State., 2. The Chief Minister communicates to the Governor the proposals, for legislation., 3. The Chief Minister participates in the meetings of National, Development Council., 4. The Chief Minister submits for the consideration of the Council of, Ministers any matter on which decision has been taken by a, minister but which has not been considered by the council, as if the Governor requires., Codes:, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 4, 23. Consider the following statements with respect to the powers of, the Governor of a State :, 1. The governor can summon, prorogue and dissolve the State, Assembly., 2. The Governor can adjourn the sittings of the State Assembly., 3. The Governor addresses the first session of the Legislative, Assembly after elections., 4. The Governor causes to lay the annual budget in the State, Assembly., Which of the statements given above are correct ?, (a) 1 and 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 24., , 1, 3 and 4, 2 and 3, 2 and 4, Which of the following are functions to which the scope of the, discretionary powers of the Governor is limited ?, 1. The appointment of the Chief Minister, 2. The dismissal of the Ministry, 3. The dissolution of the Legislative Assembly, 4. Assent to Bills, Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 25. Consider the following statements:, The Governor of a State has the power of appoint:, 1. Judges of the High Court, 2. Members of the State Public Service Commission, 3. Members of the State Finance Commission, 4. The Accountant General, Which of these statements are correct?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 26. Consider the following statements:, Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor may:, 1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature., 2. Reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature for the, consideration of the President., 3. Return a Bill, other than a Money Bill, for reconsideration of the, legislature., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1 and 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) 1, 2 and 3, 27. On which of the following issues can a Governor make, recommendation to the President?, 1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers, 2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court, 3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly, 4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitution Machinery in, the State, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2 and 4, 28. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : Reservation of a State Bill for the assent of the, President is a discretionary power of the, Governor., Reason (R) : The President of India can disallow a Bill passed, by a State Legislature or return it for, reconsideration., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 29. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : The Chief Minister of a State is the head of the, Council of Ministers of that State., Reason (R) : The Chief Minister is responsible to the State, Legislative Assembly and enjoys the support of a, majority in the House., Codes :
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 30. In which of the following bodies, does the Chief Minister of a, State hold membership?, 1. National Integration Council, 2. National Development Council, 3. Inter-State Council, 4. Zonal Council, Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 1, 3 and 4, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 31. Consider the following statements :, 1. The Governor cannot function without the State Council of, Ministers., 2. A person who is not a member of the State Legislature cannot be, appointed as a minister., 3. The State Council of Ministers can function for sometime even, after death or resignation of the Chief Minister., 4. In the absence of the Chief Minister, only the Home Minister can, preside over emergency meetings of the State Council of, Ministers., Which of these is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) 3 and 4, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 32. The salaries and allowances of the Council of Ministers of the, State Government are paid from the :, [NDA-2017], (a) Reserve Bank of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 33., , Treasury of the State Government, Contingency Fund of the State, Consolidated Fund of the State, The ministers in the Council of Ministers at the state level are, appointed by :, (a) President of the party, (b) Governor, (c) Chief Minister, (d) Prime Minister, 34. Which/Who of the following can appoint a commission to, examine and report on any matter relating to the administration, of the autonomous districts or regions?, (a) Legislative Assembly of the State, (b) Governor of the State, (c) President of India, (d) Parliament of India, 35. The Governor may recommend the imposition of the President’s, rule in the state, [NDA 2013-II], (a) on the recommendation of the State Legislature, (b) on the recommendation of the President, (c) on the recommendation of the Chief Minister, (d) if he is convinced thai the Government of the State cannot be, carried on in accordance with the provisions of the, Constitution of India, 36. The Governor of a State can act independent of the advice of, the Council of Ministers in, [UP-PCS 2009], 1. asking the government to prove its majority in the Assembly., 2. dismissing a Chief Minister, 3. reserving a bill for the consideration of the President of India., 4. returning the bill passed by the legislature for reconsideration, 5. seeking the opinion of the High Court., Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, Codes :, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4, (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5, (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) All the above, 37. Which among the following States did record the formation of, maximum Coalitation Governments in between 1967 to, 1971?, [UP-PCS 2013], (a) Uttar Pradesh, (b) Haryana, (c) Bihar, (d) Punjab, 38. Who was the Speaker of the First Elected Legislative Assembly, of Uttarakhand?, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], (a) Prakash Pant, (b) Harbansh Kapur, (c) Govind Singh Kunjwal, (d) Yashpal Arya, 39. On the basis of formation, Uttarakhand is the –, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], (a) 27th State of Indian Union, (b) 26th State of Indian Union, (c) 28th State of Indian Union, (d) 29th State of Indian Union, 40. Who among the following appointed by the Governor can be, removed by only the President of India?, (a) Chief Minister of a state, (b) A member of the State Public Service Commission, (c) Advocate - General, (d) Vice - Chancellor of a State University, 41. The Governor of the state has the power to reserve a Bill for the, consideration of the President. At least in one case the, reservation of the Bill is compulsory. The case is –, (a) Where the law in question would derogate from the powers of, the High Court under the Constitution, (b) The bill is related to enhancing quota of reservation for a, particular class of the society, (c) The Bill creating a new district or the division, (d) The Bill starting any special type of population census in the, state
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , State Judiciary, 42. Consider the following statements :, 1. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President, of India and not head of state like a Governor., 2. The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists, (including the state list) for the Union territories., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 43. Which of the following is correct regarding the union territories ?, 1. Articles 239 to 241 contain provisions regarding the union, territories., 2. Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories., 3. Part VII of the Constitution deal with the union territories., 4. Articles 238 to 242 contain provisions regarding the union, territories., Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 1 and 3, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 2 and 4, 44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, (Union Territories), , List-II, (Judiciary), , A., , Andaman and Nicobar 1., Islands, , Under Bombay High, Court, , B., , Dadra and Nagar, Haveli, , 2., , Under Madras High, Court, , C., , Lakshadweep, , 3., , Under Punjab High, Court
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , D., , Puducherry, , 4., , Under Calcutta High, Court, , 5., , Under Kerala High Court, , Codes :, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 2, , 1, , 5, , 4, , (b), , 4, , 1, , 5, , 2, , (c), , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , (d), 2, 5, 4, 3, 45. Who is authorized to transfer the judges of one High Court to, another High Court?, (a) The President, (b) The Chief Justice of India, (c) A collegium of judges of the Supreme Court., (d) The Law Minister, 46. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by, (a) President, (b) Governor, (c) Chief Justice of India, (d) President on the advice of Governor of the state concerned and, the Chief Justice of India, 47. Which of the following state/Union territories have a common, High Court?, (a) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh, (c) Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir, (d) Assam and Bengal, 48. In which year was the High Court in Madras established?, (a) 1862, (b) 1871, (c) 1881, (d) 1891, 49. The mobile court in India is brainchild of:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Justice Bhagwati, (b) Mr. Rajiv Gandhi, (c) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, (d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil, 50. A high court judge addresses his letter of resignation to:, (a) The President, (b) The Chief Justice of India, (c) The Chief Justice of High Court, (d) The Governor of the state, 51. Which one of the following states does not have its High Court?, (a) orissa, (b) Sikkim, (c) Himachal Pradesh, (d) Goa, 52. Which of the following High Courts has the largest number of, Benches?, (a) Kolkata High Court, (b) Madhya Pradesh High Court, (c) Bombay High Court, (d) Guwahati High Court, 53. Which one of the following is NOT the main jurisdiction of the, High Court of a state?, (a) Advisory Jurisdiction, (b) original Jurisdiction, (c) Supervisory Jurisdiction, (d) Appellate Jurisdiction, 54. The first High/Supreme Court judge, who voluntarily made his, assets public is, (a) Justice D.V.S. Kumar, (b) Justice K. Chandra, (c) Justice K. Kannan, (d) Justice V.C. Srivastava, 55. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial, jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Islands?, (a) andhra Pradesh, (b) Calcutta, (b) Madras, (d) orissa
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 56. On which one of the following funds are salary and allowances, of, the, judges, of, High, Court, of, the, state, charged?, [CDS-2017], (a) Consolidated fund of India, (b) Consolidated fund of the State, (c) Contingency fund of India, (d) Contingency fund of the state, 57. How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than, one state (Union territories not included)?, (a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 5, 58. Which writ is issued by the High court to the lower courts to stop, legal action?, (a) Habeas Corpus, (b) Prohibition, (c) Quo Warranto, (d) Certiorari, 59. The jurisdiction of state high court can be extended by, (a) Parliament, (b) The Chief Justice of India, (c) The Governor of the state, (d) The President of India., 60. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is entitled, to be consulted by the President of India in the matter of the, appointments of the Judges of the High Court?, (a) The Union Minister of Law and Justice, (b) The Advocate General of the State, (c) The Attorney-General of India, (d) The Governor, 61. Who has the authority to appoint a judge of a High Court?, (a) The Chief Justice of India, (b) The president of India, (c) The governor of the concerned state, (d) The Legislative Assembly
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 62. Which High Court has jurisdiction over the State of Arunachal, Pradesh?, (a) Guwahati, (b) Mumbai, (c) Kolkata, (d) Chandigarh, 64. Which among the following Union Territory has a Judicial, Commissioner?, (a) Pondicherry, (b) andaman & Nicobar Islands, (c) Daman & Diu, (d) Lakshadweep, 64. One High Court may have jurisdiction over two or more states if, the following so decides, (a) President of India, (b) Parliament, (c) Supreme Court, (d) The states involved, 65. Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the following, (a) Consolidated fund of India, (b) Consolidated fund of State, (c) Subject to the decision of Supreme Court, (d) None of these, 66. If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court,, the question shall be decided by, (a) Chief Justice of India, (b) President of India, (c) Collegiums of judges headed by the Chief Justice of India, (d) Three judges committee constituted by the Vice President of, India, 67. When the chief justice of a High Court acts in an administrative, capacity, he is subject to., (a) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court., (b) Special control exercised by the chief justice of India., (c) Discretionary power of the Governor of the State, (d) Special powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 68. According to the Constitution of India the term ‘district judge’, shall not include, (a) Chief Presidency Magistrate, (b) Sessions Judge, (c) Tribunal Judge, (d) Chief Justice of a Small Cause Court, 69. Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in, India:, 1. There are eighteen High Courts in the Country., 2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state., 3. No Union territory has a High Court of its own., 4. Judges of the High court hold office till the age of 62., (a) 1, 2 and 4, (b) 2 and 4, (c) 1 and 4, (d) 4 only, 70. Which one of the following High Courts has the territorial, jurisdiction over Andaman and Nicobar Island?, (a) andhra Pradesh, (b) Calcutta (Kolkatta), (c) Madras(Chennai), (d) Odisha, 71. Consider the following statements, 1. There are 25 high courts in India, 2. Punjab, Haryana and the UT of Chandigarh have a common, High Court., 3. NCT of Delhi has a High Court of its own, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 2 and 3, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 3 only, 72. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : In India, Every State has a High Court in its, territory
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Reason (R) : The constitution of India provides for a High Court, in each state, (a) (a) and (R) is correct, (b) (a) and (R) is wrong, (c) (a) is correct (R) is wrong, (d) (a) is wrong (R) is correct, 73. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding writ of, ‘prohibition’?, 1. It is an order issued by the Higher Court commanding Lower, Court to cease from proceeding in some matters not within, its jurisdiction., 2. This writ is available against a public officer even if he is not, vested with judicial powers., Select the correct answer using the codes given below., (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 74. Consider the following statements :, 1. The maximum number of Judges in a High Court are specified in, the Constitution of India., 2. Every High Court has a power of superintendence over all courts, and tribunals (except military tribunals) provided they are, subject to appellate jurisdiction of the High Court., Which of the statements given above is / are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 75. Which of the following are the main jurisdictions of the High, Court of a State ?, 1. Original jurisdiction, 2. Appellate jurisdiction, 3. Supervisory jurisdiction, 4. Advisory jurisdiction, Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 76., , 1, 2 and 3, 2, 3 and 4, 1, 3 and 4, 1, 2 and 4, The Bombay High Court does not have a bench at which one of, the following places?, [NDA 2008-II], (a) Nagpur, (b) Panaji, (c) Pune, (d) Aurangabad, 77. Consider the following statements [NDA 2012-II], 1. In India, only two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies., 2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-Eastern, States of India, have only one seat each in the Lok Sabha., Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 78. The Judge of the High Courts in India is administered oath of, office by, [NDA 2013-II], (a) the Chief Justice of the High Court, (b) the Governor of the State, (c) the President of India, (d) the Chief Justice of India, 79. Consider the following statements about lower courts and, identify the false statements from the codes given below :, (a) The Panchayat Courts have only civil jurisdication., (b) The Munsiff Courts are lower in hierarchy to the court of, Subordinate Judge., (c) The Sessions cases are the more serious civil cases in the Court, of the District Judges., Codes :, (a) (a) Only, (b) (a) and (b), (c) (a) and (c)
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) (a), (b) and (c), 80. The Chief Justice of Uttarakhand who also became the Chief, Justice of India –, [UK-PSC/FR 2015], (a) Justice Ashok A. Desai, (b) Justice P. C. Verma, (c) Justice Barin Ghosh, (d) Justice S. H. Kapadia, 81., Which of the following states are the first states in india where, Integrated Criminal Justice System (ICJS) will be launched?, (a) Punjab and Haryana, (b) Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, (c) Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgargh, (d) Bihar and Jharkhand, 82., There is a High Court for each of the states except –, I., Manipur, II. Meghalaya, III. Tripura, IV. Goa, (a) Only I and II, (b) Only II and III, (c) I, II and III, (d) I, II, III and IV, 83. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding, Certiorari?, [UGC-II 2016], (a) A High Court can issue a writ against itself in its administrative, capacity, (b) A bench of a High Court can issue a writ to another bench of the, same High Court, (c) A High Court cannot issue a writ to another High Court, (d) A High Court can issue certiorari to a tribunal situated within its, jurisdiction, 84, Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by –, [CDS-2017], (a) President of India, (b) Governor of the State, (c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d), , Prime Minister of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., 2., , (d) The number of members ranges between 60 and 500., (c) The state of Jammu and Kashmir can nominate two women, members to the Legislative Assembly. The two women may, be nominated as members by the Governor of Jammu and, Kashmir if he or she is of the opinion that women are not, adequately represented., 3., (c) Legislative council in state can created or abolished by, Parliament after the state assembly passes the resolution., 4., (d) The Legislative Council elects its Chairman and Deputy, Chairman from amongst its memebers. A member holding, office as Chairman or Deputy Chairman of a Legislative, Council may be removed from his office by a resolution of, the Council passed by a majority of all the then members of, the Council., 5., (c), 6., (d) Himachal Pradesh passed a legislation (1996) making the, maintenance of one’s parents mandatory., 7., (a) The Provincial Legislative Councils established were mere, advisory bodies by means of which Government obtained, advice and assistance. The Provincial Legislative Council, could not interfere with the laws passed by the Central, Legislature., 8., (d) The legislative assembly of the concerned state, recommends to the parliament for the abolition of the, legislative council in a state (Article 169)., 9., (c) Up to 2014, seven (out of twenty-nine) states have a, Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and, Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar, Pradesh.Tamilnadu does not have Legislative Council., 10. (a) Sikkim state assembly has the lowest number of seats, among Indian States. There are 32 members in a legislative, assembly., 11. (a) There is 1 nominated member in the Legislative Assembly, of Uttrakhand 2016. George Ivan Gregory Mann a member
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 12., 13., 14., 15., , 16., 17., , 18., , 19., , of the Anglo - Indian Community has been nominated for, this., (c) If budget is disclosed before introducing in the Legislative, Assembly, the Finance Minister will have to resign., (b) President does not has the final power to decide about the, legislative council composition., (b) There is no provision of impeachment of Governor of state., (a) The state election commissioner, chairman of the state, PSC, and the advocate General of the state are appointed, by the governor. A judge of the High Court is appointed by, the President., (d) As per Article 156, the governor shall hold office during the, pleasure of the president. He can resign his office, or can, be removed from his office by president at any time., (d) In article 158 of the Constitution, after clause (3), the, following clause shall be inserted, namely:, “(3A) Where the same person is appointed as Governor of two or, more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to, the Governor shall be allocated among the States in such, proportion as the President may by order determine.”, Clause 6 -Article 153 provides that there shall be a, Governor for each State. Since it may be desirable in, certain circumstances to appoint a Governor for two or more, States, it is proposed to add a proviso to this article to, remove any possible technical bar to such an appointment., (a) Contingency Fund of each State Government is, established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution – this is, in the nature of an imprest placed at the disposal of the, Governor to enable him/her to make advances to meet, urgent unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by, the State Legislature., (d) The Governor of the States of India is appointed by the, President of India for a period of five years. A Governor is, appointed on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers,, or in reality on the advice of the Prime Minister.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 20., , 21., 22., 23., , 24., (i), (ii), (iii), , (c) A Governor can make recommendation, to the president on, dissolution of the state legislative assembly and the, declaration of the breakdown of the constitution machinery, in the state. Under article 356 State emergency is declared, on failure of constitutional machinery in a state. Nearly, every state in India has been under a state of emergency at, some point of time or the other. The state of emergency is, commonly known as ‘President’s Rule’., (b) The format of the oath and affirmation of the governor is, also mentioned under the Article 159 of the Indian, Constitution., (d) National Development Council is not constitutional., (b) The Governor is a part of the state legislative and can, summon, adjourn or prorogue the state legislative. The, governor can even dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. At the, commencement of the first session after each general, election to the Legislative Assembly and at the, commencement of the first session of each year the, Lieutenant Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly, and inform it of the causes of its summons. As per Article, 202 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a State, shall, cause to be laid before the House or Houses of the, Legislature of the State a Statement of the estimated, receipts and expenditure of the State for a financial year., This estimated statement of receipt and expenditure for a, financial year named in the Constitution as the “Annual, Financial Statement” is commonly known as “Budget”., (a) State Governor has constitutional discretion in the following, cases:, Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s Rule in the, State;, Appointing the Chief Minister when no party has acquired clear, cut majority in the State Legislative Assembly and when the, Chief Minister dies when in office., Dismissal of the Council of Ministers when they lose the, confidence of the State Legislative Assembly.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., , 29., 30., , (b) The Governor has the power to appoint the Council of, Ministers including the Chief Minister of the state, the, Advocate General and the members of the State Public, Service Commission. However, the Governor cannot, remove the members of the State Public Service, Commission as they can only be removed by an order of, the President., (d) Under Article 200 of the constitution of India, the Governor, may withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State, Legislature, reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature, for consideration of the President and return a Bill, for, reconsideration of the Legislature., (c) In case no political party bags a majority in the Vidhan, Sabha of the state, the Governor holds the power to use his, discretion to select the Chief Minister. The Governor informs, the President in an official report, of a particular emergency, arisen in the state, and imposes ‘President’s Rule’ on the, behalf of the President. The Governor, in such, circumstances, overrides the advice or functions of the, Council of Ministers, and directs upon himself, the workings, of the state., (b) Assent to Bills – When a Bill has been passed by the, Legislative Assembly of a State or, in the case of a State, having a Legislative Council, has been passed by both, Houses of the Legislature of the State, it shall be presented, to the Governor and the Governor shall declare either that, he assents to the Bill or that he withholds assent therefrom, or that he reserves the Bill for the consideration of the, President., Bills reserved for consideration – When a Bill is reserved by a, Governor for the consideration of the President, the, President shall declare either that he assents to the Bill or, that he withholds assent therefrom., (a), (c) The chief minister holds membership in the National, Integration Council, National Development Council, Inter-
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 31., , 32., , 33., 34., 35., , 36., 37., 38., , State Council and the Zonal Council., (a) The Constitution provides that there shall be a Council of, Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and, advice the Governor in the exercise of his functions except, in so far as he is by or under the Constitution required to act, in his discretion. The governor appoints the Chief Minister, and other Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister., (d) Members of the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative, Council of a State shall be entitled to receive such salaries, and allowances as may from time to time be determined, by, the Legislature of the State by law and, until provision in, that respect is so made, salaries and allowances at such, rates and upon such conditions as were immediately before, the commencement of this Constitution applicable in the, case of members of the Legislative Assembly of the, corresponding province. The salary is paid from state, consolidated fund., (b), (b), (d) President’s rule refers to Article 356 of the Constitution of, India deals with the failure of the constitutional machinery of, an Indian state. In the event that government in a state is, not able to function as per the Constitution, the state comes, under the direct control of the central government, with, executive authority exercised through the Governor instead, of a Council of Ministers headed by an elected Chief, Minister accountable to the state legislature. Article 356 is, invoked if there has been failure of the constitutional, machinery in any states of India., (a), (c) The maximum number of coalition government between, 1967 to 1971-72 was formed in Bihar. During this period 9, governments were formed in the state., (d) Yashpal Arya was the speaker of the First Elected, Legislative Assembly of Uttrakhand.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 39., 40., 41., , 42., 43., 44., , 45., , 46., , 47., 48., 49., , (a) Uttrakhand is the 27th state of Indian Union. It is a state in, the northern part of India., (b) A member of the State Public Service Commission, appointed by the Governor can be removed by only the, President of India., (a) The Governor of the State has the power to reserve a bill, for the consideration of the president especially where the, law in question would derogate from the powers of the High, Court under the constitution., (c), (b), (b) The seven current union territories are:, • Andaman and Nicobar Islands., • Chandigarh., • Dadra and Nagar Haveli., • Daman and Diu., • Delhi (National Capital Territory of Delhi), • Lakshadweep., • Puducherry (Pondicherry), (a) The President may, after consultation with the Chief Justice, of India, transfer a judge from one high court to any other, high court. When a judge has been or is transferred, he, shall, during the period he serves, after the commencement, of the Constitution (Fifteenth Amendment) Act, 1963, as a, Judge of the other High Court., (d) Judges in High Court are appointed by the President of, India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the, governor of the state. High Courts are headed by a Chief, Justice., (b) Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh share a high court under, the High Court (Punjab) Order, 1947., (a) Madras High Court established in 1862. It consists of 74, Judges and a chief justice. Sanjay Kishan Kaul is present, Chief justice of Madras court., (c) It is said to be a brainchild of former President A.P.J. Abdul, Kalam, the concept of mobile court is based on the pressing
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 50., 51., 52., , 53., , 54., 55., , 56., 57., , 58., , need to take the administration of civil and criminal justice, closer to the people so that those living in remote areas are, able to benefit without incurring the expenses of travelling to, courts at distant places., (a) High court judge is removed only by the order of the, President. The high court judge addresses his letter of, resignation to the President., (d) Goa comes under the jurisdiction of Bombay High Court., (d) Guwahati High Court has the largest number of Benches., The principal seat of the Gauhati High Court is at Guwahati in, Assam. The court has 3 outlying benches. These are:, The Kohima bench for Nagaland state., The Aizawl bench for Mizoram state., The Itanagar bench for Arunachal Pradesh state., (a) The High Court of India does not have advisory jurisdiction., It has original, appellate and supervisory jurisdiction only., Supervisory jurisdiction refers to power of superior courts of, general superintendence over all subordinate courts., (c) High court judge Justice K Kannan was the first judge to, have voluntarily made his assets public., (b) Calcutta High court has the territorial jurisdiction over, Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Calcutta High Court is, the oldest High Court in India. It was established as the, High Court of Judicature at Fort William on 1 July 1862, under the High Courts Act, 1861., (b) Salary is charged on Consolidated Fund of State. But the, pension of the High Court judge is given from the, Consolidated Fund of India., (b) Bombay High Court has jurisdiction over two statesMumbai and Goa; Guwahti High Court has jurisdiction over, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Mizoram and Nagaland;, Punjab and Haryana High Court has jurisdiction over, Punjab and Haryana., (b) Prohibition writ is issued by the high court to the lower, courts to stop legal action. A writ of prohibition is a writ, directing a subordinate to stop doing something the law
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 59., , (a), , 60., , (d), , 61., , (b), , 62., , (a), , 63., , (c), , 64. (b), 65. (a), 66., , (a), , 67., , (c), , 68., , (c), , prohibits. In practice, the court directs the clerk to issue the, writ, and directs the Sheriff to serve it on the subordinate,, and the clerk prepares the writ and gives it to the Sheriff,, who serves it., The Parliament may make a provision for a common High, Court for two or more States or extend the jurisdiction of a, High Court to one or more Union Territories., Clause (1) of Article 217 says that “every judge of a High, Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under, his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of, India, the Governor of the State., Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the, President by warrant under his hand and seal after, consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of, the State, and, in the case of appointment of a Judge other, than the chief Justice., The Guwahati High Court was established on 1 March,, 1948 after the Government of India Act 1935 was passed. It, was originally known as the High Court of Assam and, Nagaland, but renamed as Gauhati High Court in 1971., Act no. 16 of 1964 is an act to declare the judicial, commissioner’s court for Goa, Daman and Diu [16th may,, 1964]., Jurisdiction over two or more states., Pensions of High Court judges are charged on the, consolidated Fund of the India., Any question arising as to the age of a judge of a High, court, the question shall be decided by chief justice of India., According to Article 227(b), the Chief Justice of High Court, when acts in an administrative capacity, any rules made by, him shall not be inconsistent with the provision of any law in, force and requires the previous approval of the governor., According to Article 236, the expression district judge, includes judge of a city Civil Court, additional district judge,, joint district judge, assistant district judge, chief judge of a, Small Cause Court, chief presidency magistrate, additional
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 69., , (b), , 70., , (b), , 71. (c), 72. (d), 73. (a), , chief presidency magistrate, sessions judge, additional, sessions judge and assistant sessions judge., The Centre has constituted three new High Courts in the, northeast — Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura — taking the, total number of High Courts in the country from 21 to 24., The Constitution allows every judge of a High Court, including additional and acting judges to hold office till 62, years. The Constitution (114th Amendment) Bill, 2010, increases the age limit to 65 years., The Calcutta High Court has the territorial jurisdiction over, West Bengal, it is having circuit bench at Port Blair., All 1, 2 and 3 are correct., (a) is wrong (R) is correct., Writ of prohibition is not available against a public officer, not vested with judicial or quasi judicial powers., , 74. (d), , 75. (a) At present a high court enjoys the following, jurisdiction and powers:, •, •, •, •, •, •, 76., , Original Jurisdiction, Appellate Jurisdiction, Supervisory Jurisdiction, Control over subordinate courts, A court of record, Power of judicial review, (c) The Bombay High Court has benches in Nagpur,, Aurangabad and Panaji., 77. (a) Delhi and Puducherry have their own elected legislative, assembliesand the executive councils of ministers., 78. (b) According to Article 219 of Indian Constitution (Oath or, affirmation by Judges of High Courts) every person, appointed to be a Judge of a High Court shall, before he, enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the, Governor of the State, or some person appointed in that, behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form, set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 79., 80., 81., , 82., 83., 84., , (c) At the level of district judiciary in India, the session cases, are not civil, but criminal cases. Panchayat courts have, criminal jurisdiction in minor offences., (d) There are 2 Former chief justices of uttarakhand S.H., Kapadia and J.S. Khehar who later become chief Justice of, India., (b) Integrated Criminal Justice is system in which the courts,, police stations, Prosecution, forensic Science laboratories, and Jails are integrated. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, are the first two states that has chosen the ICJS system., (d) There is a High Court for each of the states except, Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura, Goa, Mizoram, Nagaland and, Arunachal Pradesh., (b) A bench of a High court is equal to the High court in all, judicial powers. Hence a bench of the High court cannot, issue certiorari against the order of another bench., (a) The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the, President of India with the consultation of the chief Justice, of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the State.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Panchayati Raj, 1., (a), (b), (c), (d), 2., (a), (b), (c), (d), 3., (a), (b), (c), (d), 4., (a), (b), (c), (d), 5., (a), (b), (c), , A committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the, Panchayti Raj was chaired by, Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta, K.N. Katju, Jagjivan Ram, Which article of the Indian Constitution provides for the, institution of Panchayti Raj?, Article 36, Article 39, Article 40, Article 48, Which one of the following is not a Panchayati Raj institution?, Gram Sabha, Gram Panchayat, Nyaya Panchayat, Gram Co-operative Society, When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India?, 1945, 1950, 1959, 1962, Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram, Panchayats?, Income Tax, Sales Tax, Professional Tax
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Duties, 6. The Constitution of India mandates that the elections of the, Panchayati Raj should be held regularly after a gap of:, (a) 2 years, (b) 3 years, (c) 4 years, (d) 5 years, 7. The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution deals with, [NDA-2017], (a) Panchayati Raj, (b) Compulsory primary education, (c) Nagar Palikas, (d) Minimum age of marriage, 8. Which one of the following states started the Panchayati Raj, institution soon after the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act was, passed?, (a) Karnataka, (b) Bihar, (c) West Bengal, (d) orissa, 9. The Ashok Mehta Committee laid greater emphasis on, (a) Gram Sabha, (b) Mandal Sabha, (c) Taluka Panchayat Samiti, (d) Zila Parishad, 10. Panchayati Raj in India represents:, (a) Decentralization of powers, (b) Participation of the people, (c) Community development, (d) All of these, 11. Panchayati Raj in India is laid down under:, (a) Fundamental Rights, (b) Directive Principle of State Policy, (c) Fundamental Duties, (d) Election Commission Act Policy, 12. Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of, (a) Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Block Samiti
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 19. Which of the following Indian states has no Panchayati Raj, institution?, (a) Assam, (b) Tripura, (c) Kerala, (d) Nagaland, 20. Functions to be assigned to panchayats by 73rd amendment of, the Constitution are mentioned in, (a) Tenth schedule, (b) Eleventh schedule, (c) Twelfth schedule, (d) Thirteenth schedule, 21. Provision regarding panchayats and municipalities was made in, the Indian Constitution in which year?, (a) 1991, (b) 1992, (c) 1995, (d) 2000, 22. When and where Panchayati Raj system in India was, introduced?, (a) July5, 1957; Firozabad (U.P), (b) October 2, 1959; Nagor (Rajasthan), (c) Nov 14, 1959; Ahmedabad (Gujrat), (d) December 3, 1960; Bhopal (M.P), 23. Which committee had first of all recommended three-tier, Panchayati Raj in India in 1957?, (a) Balwant Rai Committee, (b) Ashok Mehta Committee, (c) Setalwad Committee, (d) Hanumantayaa Committee, 24. The constitutional status has been given to Panchayats under, Article., (a) 219, (b) 226, (c) 239, (d) 243
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 25., (a), (b), (c), (d), 26., (a), (b), (c), (d), 27., (a), (b), (c), (d), 28., (a), (b), (c), (d), 29., (a), (b), (c), (d), 30., (a), (b), (c), (d), 31., (a), (b), (c), , Panchayati Raj is organised at the, block level, village, block, district and state level, village, block and district level, village and block level, The Panchayati Raj institution at the block level is known as:, Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad, None of these, What is the middle unit in the three tier Panchayati Raj System?, Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad, Union Board, If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:, One month, Three months, Six months, One year, The Panchayati Raj is included in the, Union list, State list, Concurrent list, Residuary list, Which one of the following Articles provides for the reservation, of seats for the scheduled caste and scheduled tribes in the, Panchayat?, Article 243(a), Article 243(b), Article 243(c), Article 243(d), Panchayati Raj is based on the principles of, decentralisation, deconcentration, decmocratic centralization
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) democratic decentralisation, 32. Which of the following committees is not concerned with, Panchayati Raj?, (a) Santhanam Committee, (b) Ashok Mehta Committee, (c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, (d) V.K.R.V. Rao Committee, 33. Which one of the following models was suggested by the Ashok, Mehta Committee for the Panchayati Raj in India?, (a) Three-tier model, (b) Mandal Panchayat model, (c) Two-tier model, (d) Gram Panchayat model, 34. Which one of the following Directive principles is nearer to, Gandhi’s philosophy?, (a) Equal pay for equal work, (b) Separation of executive from judiciary, (c) Strengthening of Gram Panchayats, (d) Equal justice and free legal aid, 35. Which of the following committees recommended that the, elections to Panchayati Raj bodies should be held on party, lines?, (a) Balwant Rai Mehta committee, (b) Ashok committee, (c) Dhar Committee, (d) VKRV Rao committee, 36. Elections in the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India are, conducted by, (a) State Election Commissioner, (b) Election Commission of India, (c) State Government, (d) Central Government, 37. Which one of the following is not the concern of local, government?, [NDA-2017], (a) Public health, (b) Sanitation
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Public utility service, (d) Maintenance of public order, 38. In which year, the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1972), was assented by the President?, (a) 1990, (b) 1991, (c) 1993, (d) 1994, 39. In which year, Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed to review, the working of Panchayati Raj institution?, (a) 1977, (b) 1978, (c) 1979, (d) 1980, 40. Which article of the Constitution lays down that state shall take, steps to organise village Panchayats?, (a) Article 36, (b) Article 73, (c) Article 24, (d) Article 40, 41. After elections, vote of no-confidence against the sarpanch can, be proposed only after, (a) 3 months, (b) 6 months, (c) 1 year, (d) 2 years, 42. Which of the following articles in the shape of the directive, principles mentions the organisation of the village panchayats?, (a) Article 40, (b) Article 43, (c) Article 44, (d) Article 47, 43. A 2-tier system is prescribed by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, for states with population less than, (a) 10 lakhs, (b) 5 lakhs
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) 20 lakhs, (d) none of these, 44. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local, Government in India?, (a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an, independent tier in the federal system., (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women, (c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission, (d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission, 45. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are, several fresh provisions deviating from the past. Which one of, the following is not one such provisions?, (a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture rural, development, primary education and social forestry among, other, (b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are, due, (c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, up to a, third of the strength, (d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to, ensure their punctuality and accountability, 46. Swaraj Trophy is associated with which of the following, (a) Best district, (b) Best Zila Parishad, (c) Best metropolitan, (d) Best Panchayat, 47. Which is the first state in South India to introduce Panchayati, Raj?, [CDS-2017], (a) andhra Pradesh, (b) Kerala, (c) Tamil Nadu, (d) Karnatka, 48. Under which Prime Minister were the 73rd and 74th amendment, implemented?, (a) Narasimha Rao, (b) Indira Gandhi
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) Rajiv Gandhi, (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee, 49. Which of the following articles states that State shall take, necessary steps to organize village panchayat?, (a) Article 40, (b) Article 30, (c) Article 29, (d) Article 101, 50. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes, a specific mention of village panchayats?, (a) Article 19, (b) Article 21, (c) Article 40, (d) Article 246, 51. Point out the difference between the local government in India, before and after the Constitutional Amendments in 1992:, 1. It has become mandatory to hold regular elections to the local, government bodies., 2. 1/3rd positions are reserved for women., 3. Elected officials exercise supreme power in the government., Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1 only, (b) 1 and 2 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2 and 3 only, 52. ‘Local government’ as a subject, is mentioned in which of the, following parts of the Constitution of India?, (a) State list under the 7th schedule, (b) Concurrent list under the 7th schedule, (c) 11th Schedule, (d) 12th schedule, 53. Which of the following provisions about the Panchayati Raj in, the Constitution of India is/are correct?, 1. All the members of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and, district levels are elected directly by the voters.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , The Chairperson of Panchayats at the village, intermediate and, district levels is elected directly by the voters., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 54. Consider the following statements:, [NDA-2017], 1. The goal of empowering Gram Sabha as the voice of, Panchayats through Article 243A of the constitution was to, provide a democratic basis to decentralized decision, making., 2. The Ministry of Environment and Forests, has recently modified, a circular it issued in 2009 and allowed building activities in, forests areas without the need for Gram Sabha consent., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 55. Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of local, government in India?, (a) According to the Indian constitution, local government is not an, independent tier in the federal system., (b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women., (c) Local government finances are to be provided by a commission., (d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a commission., 56. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up?, (a) Single tier structure of local self govt. at the village level, (b) Two tier system of local self govt. at the village and block levels., (c) Three tier structure of local self govt. at the village, block and, district levels., (d) Four tier system of local self govt. at the village, block, district, and state levels., 57. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below the list:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , List I, (Local Bodies), , List II, (State as 1999), , A., , Zilla Parishads at the, subdivisional level, , 1., , Andhra Pradesh, , B., , Mandal Praja, Parishad, , 2., , Assam, , C., , Tribal Councils, , 3., , Mizoram, , D., , Absence of village, Panchayats, , 4., , Meghalaya, , Codes:, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 2, , 1, , 4, , 3, , (b), , 1, , 2, , 4, , 3, , (c), , 3, , 2, , 1, , 4, , (b), 58., (a), (b), (c), (d), 59., 1., , 2, 1, 3, 4, If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within:, 1 month, 3 months, 6 months, 1 year, Consider the following statements :, Courts have no jurisdiction to examine the validity of a law, relating to delimitation of constituencies or allotment of, seats in respect of Panchayats., 2. An election to a Panchayat can be called in question only by an, election petition, which should be presented to such, authority and in such manner as may be prescribed by the, State Election Commission., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 60. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : The Constitution of India now provides a, mechanism for regular flow of funds to Panchayati, Raj institutions., Reason (R) : The Panchayati Raj institutions have been greatly, handicapped in the performance of their assigned, duties by paucity of funds., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A., (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A., (c) A is true but R is false., (d) A is false but R is true., 61. Which of the following statements are correct?, Village Panchayats are responsible for :, 1. Agricultural production, 2. Rural industrial development, 3. Maternity and child welfare, 4. Higher vocational education, Select the correct answer using the codes given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 4, (b) 1 and 3, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 2, 3 and 4, 62. Consider the following features :, 1. Panchayats have now been brought under the direct supervision, of the Governor., 2. Finance Commission of the State now determines the, distribution of taxes and duties between the State and, Panchayats., 3. Panchayats are now entitled to receive grants-in-aid directly from, the Central Government., 4. 1/3 of the seats in the Panchayats are now reserved for women.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , According to 73rd Amendment of the Constitution, which of these are, correct features of Panchayats?, (a) 1 and 3, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 3 and 4, (d) 2 and 4, 63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using, the codes given below:, List-I, (Features), , List-II, (Related to), , A., , Democratic, Decentralisation, , 1., , 73rd Amendment, , B., , Nagar Panchayats, , 2., , 74th Amendment, , C., , Panchayati Raj, Elections, , 3., , B.R. Mehta, Committee, , D., , Two Tier System, , 4., , Ashok Mehta, Committee, , Codes :, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 3, , 1, , 2, , 4, , (b), , 4, , 1, , 2, , 3, , (c), , 4, , 2, , 1, , 3, , (d), 64., (a), (b), (c), (d), 65., , 3, 2, 1, 4, The members of a Panchayat Samiti are:, Directly elected by the people, Indirectly elected by the members of the Village Panchayat, Nominated by the Block Development Officer, Nominated by the president / chairman of the Panchayat Samiti, Consider the following statements :, The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provided:
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , For 27% reservation of seats in the Panchayats for the Other, Backward Castes (OBCs)., 2. That the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at intermediate or, district level, shall be elected by, and from amongst the, elected members thereof., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 66. The tenure of every Panchayat shall be for five years from the, date of, [NDA 2011-I], (a) its first meeting, (b) issue of notification for the conduct of elections to the Panchayat, (c) declaration of the election results, (d) taking oath of office by the elected members, 67. Which among the following statements regarding Lord Ripon’s, plan, for, local, self-government, in, India, is/are, correct?, [NDA 2011-I], 1. The district should be the maximum area served by one, Committee or Local Board., 2. The Local Boards should consist of a large majority of nominated, official members and be presided over by an official, member as Chairman., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Onty 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 68. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats Extension to, Scheduled Areas Law popularly known as PESA law. Which one, among the following statements regarding PESA law is not, correct?, [NDA 2013-I], (a) PESA was meant to provide self-governance in the scheduled, areas, (b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals, (d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance rights of, the tribals, 69. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the functioning, of local governance institutions more transparent and, accountable?, [NDA 2013-I], 1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over the, distribution of public resources., 2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding how and, where resources should be spent., 3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access to important, decision-making venues., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) Only 3, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 70. Consider the following statements about local government in, India:, [NDA 2014-II], 1. Article 40 of Indian Constitution provides for the State to organize, village panchayats and endow them with such powers and, authority as may be necessary to make them function as, units of self-government., 2. The 73rd and 74th Constitution Amendments inserted Part IX, and IX A in the Constitution., 3. The provisions in Parts IX and IX A of Indian Constitution are, more or less parallel and analogous., 4. The 73rd Constitution Amendment is applicable to all states, irrespective of size of population., Which of the statements given above are correct?, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1, 2 and 3 only, (c) 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 71. The Panchayati Raj system under Part-IX of the Constitution of, India does not apply of the States of :
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , List – I, , List – II, , (a), , Finance Commission, , 1., , Ashok Mehta Committee, , (b), , Nagar Panchayats, , 2., , 73rd Constitutional, Amendment Act, , (c), , Democratic, Decentralisation, , 3., , 74th Constitutional, Amendment Act, , (d), , Mandal Panchayats, , 4., , Balwantrai Mehta, Committee, , Codes :, (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , (a), , 2, , 3, , 4, , 1, , (b), , 1, , 2, , 3, , 4, , (c), , 3, , 4, , 2, , 1, , (d), 78., (a), (b), (c), (d), 79., (a), (b), (c), (d), 80., (a), , 2, 3, 1, 4, The System of Panchayat Raj is mentioned in –, [UK-PSC 2016], The Union List, The State List, The Concurrent List, None of the above, If there is dispute between Panchayat and Cantonment Board,, who will decide finally?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], Collector, subject to approval of Divisional commissioner, Divisional Commissioner, subject to approval of Panchayat and, Rural Development Department, Panchayat and Rural Development Department, Subject to, approval of State Government, State Government, Subject to approval of central Government, Who notify the alteration in limits of Block and Zila, Panchayat?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], Governor
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 81., (a), (b), (c), (d), 82., I., II., III., IV., (a), (b), (c), (d), , State Election Commission, Divisional Commissioner, Collector and District Returning Officer, What is correct about the powers of Zila Panchayats of, Scheduled Areas?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], To plan minor water bodies, To control over institutions in all social sectors, To control on tribal sub-plans, All of the above, 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), is legalized in certain states such as :, Bihar, Uttarakhand, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Only in III, Only in II and III, II, III and IV, I, II, III and IV, , Urban Local Governments, 83. Which Act provides for the reservation seats for women,, scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the municipality?, (a) 65th Constitutional Amendment Act, (b) 68th Constitutional Amendment Act, (c) 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, (d) 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 84. The Municipal Commissioner is appointed by, (a) Member of Legislative Assembly, (b) Zila Parishad, (c) State Government, (d) District Magistrate, 85. Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution, the local body for a, transitional area is known as, (a) Nyaya Panchayat
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 86., , Municipal Panchayat, Nagar Panchayat, Gram Panchayat, Which among the following in India have been referred to as, “Glorified Municipalities” by critics?, (a) Nagar Nighams, (b) Union Territories, (c) Panchayats, (d) States, 87. Reducing water consumption and improvising water efficiency in, building is a major step towards sustainable water management., How do we reduce our water footprint?, 1. Conventional faucet should be replaced by modern taps., 2. We should use top-loading washing machines in place of front, loading washing machines., 3. Single-flush toilets should be replaced by dual-flush toilets., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 88. In India, the first municipal corporation was set up in which one, of the following, (a) Calcutta, (b) Madras, (c) Bombay, (d) Delhi, 89., What is the qualification to contest the election of Municipal, Council?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], (i) For the office of the President, his age should not be less than 25, years., (ii) For the office of the councillor, his age should not be less than 21, years., (iii) Whose name is in the voter list, he can contest the election., (iv) A person can contest the election of councillor from two wards, simultaneously.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (v) A person can contest the election of president and councillor, simultaneously., (a) (i), (ii), (iii), (b) (i), (ii), (v), (c) (ii), (iv), (v), (d) (iii), (iv), (v), 90. What is correct about the recall of President of Municipal, Council?, [Chhatisgarsh-PSC 2016], (i) The procedure of recall may be initiated with a proposal signed, by 3/4 members of council., (ii) The procedure of recall may be initiated with a proposal signed, by 3/4 elected members of council., (iii) If the council passed a resolution by majority, collector will take, action., (iv) President may be recalled by general voters with majority., (v) President may be recalled by general voters with 2/3 majority., (vi) The process of recall may be initiated once in his whole term., (vii) The process of recall may be initiated twice in his whole term., (a) (i), (iii), (v), (b) (ii), (iv), (vi), (c) (i), (v), (vii), (d) (ii), (iv), (vii), 91., Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise, in, [IAS-2017], (a) Federalism, (b) Democratic decentralization, (c) Administrative delegation, (d) Direct democracy
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , 2., , 3., 4., , 5., , (b) The Committee appointed in 1977 to review working of the, Panchayati Raj was chaired by Ashok Mehta. The, committee submitted its report in August 1978 and made, 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the, declining Panchayati Raj system in the country. Batwant Rai, Mehta committee submitted report in 1957 which further, establize the ‘democratic decentralization’ which finally, came to known as Panchayati Raj. He is also known as, ‘Architect of Panchayati Raj’. K.N. Katju was the chief, minister of Madhya Pradesh in 1957. Jagjivan Ram was the, first labour Minister and later served as Deputy Prime, Minister in 1977-1979., (c) Article 40, of the Indian Constitution provides for the, institution of Panchayati Raj. The State shall take steps to, organize village panchayats and endow them with such, powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them, to function as units of self government., Article39 - Certain principles of policy to be followed by the state., Article 36 - Definition of DPSP., Article 48 - Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry., (d) Panchayati Raj Institutions include Gram Sabha, Gram, Panchayat, Nyaya Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zila, Parishad. Gram Co-operative society is not a PRI., (c) In 1959 the Panchayati Raj system was introduced in India., The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed by the, Government of India in January 1957 to examine the, working of the Community Development Programme (1952), and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest, measures for their better working., (d) Levy duties is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats., The panchayats receive funds from three sources:, Local body grants, as recommended by the Central Finance, Commission., Funds for implementation of centrally sponsored schemes.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 6., 7., , 8., , 9., , 10., 11., 12., , 13., , 14., , (d) Article 243 E mentioned duration of Panchayat is for five, years from the date of appointment., (a) The 73rd Amendment of the Indian Constitution deals with, Panchayati Raj. The Amendment Act of 1992 contains, provision for devolution of powers and responsibilities to the, panchayats both for the preparation of economic, development plans and social justice., (a) Some states like Kerala, Karnataka, Sikkim, West Bengal,, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Madya Pradesh etc. have taken, good steps in devolution of Power, authority and, responsibilities to the Panchayats, other states like Goa,, Arunachal Pradesh and Jharkhand have done little in, devolving Powers to the Panchayats as provided under, Article 243-G of the Constitution., (d) Ashok Mehta Committee recommendations put greater, emphasis on Zila parishad. This committee recommended, that, A district should be the first point for decentralization, under popular supervision below the state level., (d) P.R. in India represents decentralisation of Powers,, Participation of the people and community development etc., (b) P.R. in India laid down under - DPSP mentioned in Part IV., (c) Panchayati Raj is a system of governance in which are the, basic unit of administrations . It has 3 levels: Gram, panchayat (village level), Mandal Parishad or block samiti or, panchayat samiti (block level) and Zila parishad (district, level)., (a) The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, headed by MP, Balwantrai Mehta, was a committee appointed by the, Government of India in January 1957 to examine the, working of the Community Development Programme (1952), and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest, measures for their better working., (a) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by the state of, Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct 1959. The second, state was Andhra Pradesh, while Maharashtra was the, Ninth state.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 15., , 16., , 17., 18., 19., , 20., 21., , 22., , (b) The State Election Commissions constituted under the, Constitution, (Seventy-third, and, Seventy-fourth), Amendments Act, 1992 for each State / Union Territory are, vested with the powers of conduct of elections to the, Corporations, Muncipalities, Zilla Parishads, District, Panchayats, Panchayat Samitis, Gram Panchayats and, other local bodies. They are independent of the Election, Commission of India., (d) The principal function of the Panchayat Samiti is to, co¬ordinate the activities of the various Panchayats within, its jurisdiction. The Panchayat Samiti supervises the work of, the Panchayats and scrutinises their budgets. The Samiti is, charged with the responsibility of preparing and colon, implementing plans for the development of agriculture,, animal to SU (husbandry, fisheries, small scale and cottage, industries, rural health tropic etc., (c) The main aim of Panchayat raj system is to settle the local, problems locally and to make the people politically, conscious., (b) Nyaya Panchayat extends to the whole of India except the, State of Jammu and Kashmir., (d) Nagaland has no Panchayat Raj institution. Currently, the, Panchayati Raj system exists in all the states except, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram, and in all Union, Territories except Delhi., (b) By 73rd amendment in 1992. 11th schedule contains, provisions of Panchayat Raj., (b) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 relating to, Panchayats containing articles 243 to 243-O and the, Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 relating to, Municipalities (articles 243P to 243ZG) imparted some, basic features of certainty, continuity and strength to, Panchayat Raj institutions all over the country., (b) The panchayat raj system was first adopted by the state of, Rajsthan in Nagor district on 2nd Oct 1959.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 23., , 24., 25., , 26., , 27., , 28., 29., , 30., , (a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee had first of all, recommended three-tier Panchayati Raj in India in 1957., The Act aims to provide a 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj, for all States having a population of over 2 million, to hold, Panchayat elections regularly every 5 years., (d) Article 243 gives constitutional status to the Panchayats., (c) Panchayati Raj is organised at the village, block and district, level. The 3-tier system of Panchayati Raj consists of, Village-level Panchayats, Block-level Panchayats, Districtlevel Panchayats., (b) Panchayati Raj institution at the block level is called the, Panchayat Samiti. It is the second tier of the Panchayati Raj, system and acts as a link between village panchayat and, district panchayat., Block level means Madal Parishad or block samiti or Panchayat, samiti., (b) Panchayat Samiti is the middle unit in the three-tier, Panchayati Raj system. A block panchayat (panchayat, samiti) is a local government body at the tehsil or taluka, level in India., (c) An election to constitute a Panchayat shall be completed, before the expiration of a period of six months from the date, of its dissolution., (b) Panchayati Raj is included in the State List of the Seventh, Schedule of the Constitution., Article 248 - Residuary powers of legislation, 7th schedule - Concurrent list or list -III, 7th schedule - Union list or list I., (d) According to Article 243 (d) seats should be reserved for, SC and ST in every Panchayat and the number of seats of, reserved shall bear, as nearly as may be, the same, proportion to the total number of seats to be filled by direct, election in that Panchayat as the population of the, Scheduled Castes in that Panchayat area or of the, Scheduled Tribes in that Panchayat area bears to the total
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , population of that area such seats may be allotted by, rotation to different constituencies in a Panchayat., Article 243 (a), , -, , Gram Sabha, , Article 243 (b), , -, , Constitution of, Panchayats, , Article 243 (c), , -, , Composition of, Panchayats, , 31., 32., 33., 34., 35., , 36., , 37., , (d) The principle of democratic decentralisation is very, important and forms the basis of Panchayati Raj., (a) THE SANTHANAM Committee Report 1964 defines, corruption as a complex problem having roots and, ramifications in society as a whole., (c) Two-tier model was suggested by the Ashok Mehta, committee for the Panchayati Raj in India. The 3-tier system, of Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the 2-tier system:, (c) Gandhi’s philosophy was about strengthening of Gram, Panchayats., (b) According to Ashok Mehta Committee, there should be an, official participation of political parties at all levels of, Panchayat elections., Dhar committee demanded for different region mainly south India, for reorganization of states on linguistic basis in 1948., VKRV Rao was member of several committees live Bombay, economic Industrial survey committee, National income, committee, UN Sub-committee on experts on levels of living, etc., (a) The superintendence, direction and control of the, preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all, elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State, Election Commission consisting of a State Election, Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor., (d) The local government of India are vested with a long list of, functions delegated to them by the state governments under, the municipal legislation.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 38., , 39., 40., , 41., , 42., , 43., 44., 45., 46., , (c) The constitutional 73rd &74th Amendment Acts 1992, received the assent of the president of India on 20th April, 1993 and came into force on 24th April and on 1st June, 1993 respectively., (a) In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a, committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the, chairmanship of Ashoka Mehta., (d) Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines one of the, Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the state, shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow, them with such powers and authority as may be necessary, to enable them to function as units of self-government., Article 73 - Extent of executive power of the union., Article 24 - Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc., (d) Provided that if the no-confidence motion is lost another, such motion shall not be moved against that Sarpanch, before the expiry of two years from the date of its having, been lost., (a) Article 40 states that the State shall take steps to organise, village panchayats and endow them with such powers and, authority as may be necessary to enable them to function, as units of self-government., Article 43 - Living wage etc for workers, Article 44 - Uniform civil code for the citizen., Article 47 -Duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the, standard of living and to improve public health., (c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 provides for 3-tier system of, Panchayati Raj for all the states having population of over, 20 Lakhs., (b) According to 73rd amendment act 1993, under article, 243D, not less than 1/3rd i.e. 33% seats should be reserved, for women., (d) Provision given in option (d) is not included under 73rd, amendment act 1993., (a) Kerala Government distributes the Swaraj Trophy and cash, prize for the best local bodies. From 1999-2000 onwards,
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 47., , 48., 49., , 50., , 51., , 52., , 53., , the prize extents for the best district panchayat, block, panchayat and municipalities., (a) Andhra Pradesh is the first state in South India to introduce, Panchayati Raj. Overall second state in India after, Rajasthan., (a) 73rd and 74th amendment implemented in 1993 under, period of PV Narsimha Rao (1991-1996), 9th Prime minister, of India., (a) Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines one of the, Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State, shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow, them with such powers and authority as may be necessary, to enable them to function as units of self-government., Article 29- Protection of interest of minorities., Article 30 - Right of minorities to establish and administer, educational institution., Article 101 - Vacation of seats in both houses., (c) Article 40 - Organisation of village Panchayats., Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty., Article 246 - Subject matter of laws made by parliament and by, the legislature of states., (b) There is a provision of reservation of seats for SCs, STs, and Women at every level of Panchayat. Out of the total, number of seats to be filled by the direct elections, 1/3rd, have to be reserved for women., (a) 11th and 12th Schedules of the Constitution of India belong, to only subjects under the ‘Panchayati Raj’, whereas 7th, schedule of the state list, titled as ‘Local Government’. Local, government, refers to the constitution and powers of, municipal corporations, improvement trusts, district boards,, mining settlement authorities and other local authorities for, the purpose of local self-government or village, administration., (a) The Chairperson of Panchayats at inter-mediate and, district levels are elected indirectly
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 54., , 55., 56., , 57., 58., 59., 60., 61., 62., 63., 64., 65., 66., , 67., 1., , (c) Article 243 A of the constitution is to provide a democratic, basis to decentralized decision-making. A Gram Sabha may, exercise such powers and perform such functions at the, village level as the legislature of a state may by law, provide, (b) Under Article 243, it has been mentioned that not less than, 1/3rd (33%) seats in the local bodies shall be reserved for, women., (c) Part IX of the constitution envisages a 3-tier system of, panchayats, namely (a) the village level (b) the district, panchayat (district-level) (c) The intermediate panchayat, (block-level), (a) Zilla parishads at the sub-divisional level-Assam Mandal, Praja parishad-Andhra Pradesh, Tribal Councils-Meghalaya, and Absence of village panchayats-Mizoram, (c) The fresh elections to constitute a panchayat shall be, completed in case of dissolution before the expiry of a, period of six months., (a), (a), (c), (d), (d), (a), (b), (a) According to Article 243(e), every Panchayat, unless, sooner dissolved under any law for the time being in force, shall, continue for five years from the date appointed for its first, meeting and no longer., (d) Lord Ripon’s plan for local Self government in India is as, follows:, The sub-division, not the district, should be the maximum area, served by one committee or local board with primary, boards under it serving very small areas, so that each, member of it might possess knowledge of and interest, in its affairs.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., 68., , 69., , 70., 71., , 72., , The local boards should consist of a large majority of elected, non-official members, and theyshould be presided over, by a non-official member., (b) Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act(PESA) is a, law enacted by the Government of India to cover the, “Scheduled areas” which are not covered in the 73rd, amendment or Panchayati Raj Act of the Indian, Constitution. It was enacted on 24 December 1996 to, enable Gram Sabhas to self-govern their natural resources., (d) Participatory Budgeting is a democratic process of, deliberation by citizens, civic officials and elected, representatives on the issues that need attention and, collectively arriving at decisions that would directly be, included in the budget of the government. Participatory, budgeting empowers the citizens to present their demands, and priorities for improvement and influence through, discussions and negotiations the budget allocations made, by their municipalities. It is an opportunity in which the, common citizens can decide about the allocation and, distribution of public expenditure in their areas or regions., (b) 73rd constitution amendment is applicable to all states, except Jammu & Kashmir., (c) In the history of Panchayati Raj, in India, on 24 April 1993,, the Constitutional (73rd Amendment) Act 1992 came into, force to provide constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj, institutions. Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists in, all the states except Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram,, and in all Union Territories except Delhi., (c) The voters of the State Legislative Assembly of the region, directly elect members of the Panchayat Samiti. All the, Pradhans of the Gram Panchayat within the block area are, also the members of Panchayat Samiti. The elected, members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislature, belonging to the block or any part of it or the members of, the Rajya Sabha residing in that block-all are ex-officio, members of the Panchayat Samiti.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 73., 74., 75., 76., 77., , (c), (d) The normal tenure of Panchayat is 5 years., (c) A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a, Coordinating and Supervisory Authority., (d) The members of Gram Sabha includes Registered voters of, Village Panchayat., (a), , List - I, List - II, (a), Finance Commission 73rd Constitutional, Amendment Act, 74th Constitutional, (b), Nagar Panchayats, Amendment Act, Balwantrai Mehta, (c), Democratic, Committee, Decentralisation, Ashok Mehta, (d), Mandal Panchayats, Committee, 78. (b) The system of Panchayat Raj is mentioned in the state list., Panchayat Raj is the system of local self-government for, villages., 79. (d) State Government, subject to approval of Central, Government can decide the dispute between Panchayat, and Cantonment Board., 80. (a) Governor will notify the alternation in limits of Block and, Zila Panchayat., 81. (d) The powers of Zila panchayats of scheduled Areas are–, (i) To plan minor water bodies, (ii) To control over institutions in all social sectors, (iii) To control on tribal subplans, (iv) To exercise other functions as conferred by state govt., 82. (d) 50% reservation for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions, (PRIs) is legalized in states such as Bihar, Uttarakhand,, Madhya Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh., 83. (d), 84. (c) A municipal commissioner is appointed by the state, government from the Indian Administrative Service and
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 85., , 86., 87., 88., , 89., (I), (II), (V), , mostly from Provincial Civil Service to head the, administrative staff of the Municipal Corporation, implement, the decisions of the Corporation and prepare its annual, budget., (c) Under 74th Amendment of the Constitution the local body, for a transitional area is known as Nagar Panchayat. This, article provides that there be a Nagar Panchayat for, transitional areas i.e. an area in transition from rural to, urban, a municipality for a smaller urban area and a, municipal corporation for a larger urban area. Amendment, article 280, (d) The critics slammed the Centre for making attempts to, “weaken the States with too much interference, reducing, them to the status of glorified municipal corporations.”, (c), (b) In 1687, the first municipal corporation in India was set up, at Madras during the British rule period. The Chennai Municipal, Corporation (officially the Corporation of Chennai), formerly, known as the Corporation of Madras, is the civic body that, governs the city of Chennai (formerly Madras), India., Inaugurated on September 29, 1688, under a Royal Charter, issued by King James II on December 30, 1687 as the, Corporation of Madras, it is the oldest municipal body of the, Commonwealth of Nations outside Great Britain. It is headed by, a mayor, who presides over 200 councilors each of whom, represents one of the 200 wards of the city. It is also the second, oldest corporation in the world., (b) The qualification to contest the election of municipal, corporation are, For the office of the President, his age should not be less than 25, years., For the office of Councillor his age should not be less than 21, years., A person can contest the election of president and councillor, simultaneously.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 90., , 91., , (b) The procedure of recall of President of Municipal Council, may be initiated with a proposal signed by 3/4 members of, council. President may be recalled by general voters with, majority. The process of recall may be initiated once in his, whole term., (b) Balwant Rai G Mehta Committee submitted its report in, November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the, scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately, came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , Which of the following is not provided by the Constitution of, India?, (a) Election Commission, (b) Finance Commissions, (c) Public Service Commission, (d) Planning Commission, 2., Assertions (a) : The word minority is not defined in the, Constitution of India., Reason (R) : The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body., Which of the following is correct?, (a) Both A and R true and R is the correct explanation of A., (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false., (d) A is false but R is true., 3. Consider the following statements:, [CDS-2017], 1. The Central Information Commission can order inquiry into any, matter if there are reasonable grounds., 2. The Central Information Commission has the power to secure, compliance of its decisions from the public authority., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 4. Consider the following statements :, 1. The Central Information Commission is a high-powered, independent body., 2. The Central Information Commission is a constitutional body., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 5., 1., , Only 1, Only 2, Both 1 and 2, Neither 1 nor 2, Consider the following statements :, The State Information Commission entertains complaints and, appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions and public, sector undertakings under the concerned state government., 2. The State Information Commission is a high-powered, independent body., Which of the statements given above is / are correct ?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 6., Consider the following statements:, 1. The first National Commission for Scheduled Castes and, Scheduled Tribes was constituted in the year 1992., 2. The first National Commission for Scheduled Castes and, Scheduled Tribes was constituted under the Constitution, (Sixty-fifth Amendment) Act., 3. The 87th Amendment bifurcated the combined National, Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, into two separate bodies., Which of the statements given above are correct ?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 2 and 3, (c) 1 and 3, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 7. The National Human Rights Commission can:, 1. Enquire only on the presentation of a petition of the victim and, not suo moto, into the complaint of violation of human, rights., 2. Not intervene in any proceeding involving violation of human, rights pending before a court., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 8., , 1 only, 2 only, Both 1 and 2, Neither 1 nor 2, Consider the following statements regarding the National, Human Rights Commission of India [NDA-2017], 1. Its chairman must be a retired CJI., 2. It has formations in each state as state Human Rights, Commission., 3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature., 4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the, commission., Which of the above statements are correct?, (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only, (b) 2 and 4 only, (c) 2 and 3 only, (d) 1 and 3, 9. Answer the incorrect one from below about the Lok Ayuktas?, (a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh have no Lokayuktas., (b) 11th All India Lokayukta Conference 2012 was held in New, Delhi., (c) Both (a) and (b), (d) Neither (a) nor (b), 10. Consider the following, 1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies, 2. Motor accident cases, 3. Pension cases, For which of the above are Lok Adaalats held?, (a) 1 only, (b) 1 and 2, (c) 2 Only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 11. With reference to Lok Adalats which of the following statements, is correct?, (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at prelitigative stage and not those matters pending before any
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , court., (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal, in nature., (c) Every Lok Adalat consist of either serving or retired judicial, officers only or not any other person., (d) None of the statements given above is correct., 12. With reference to Lok Adalat, consider the following statements:, 1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a, Civil Court and no appeal lies against thereto before any, Court., 2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat, Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 13. Assertion (a) : An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed be a, decree of a Civil Court., Reason (R) : Award of Lok Adalat is final and binding on all, parties, and no appeal lies against thereto before, any court, [NDA 2008-II], Codes:, (a) Bath A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A, (c) A is true, but R is false, (d) A is false, but R is true, 14. Which one of the following Commissions is not provided in the, Constitution of India?, [NDA 2009-II], (a) Planning Commission, (b) UPSC, (c) Finance Commission, (d) Election Commission, 15. With reference to Lok Adalats, which one among the following, statements is correct? [NDA 2012-II]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle the matters at prelitigative state and not those matters pending before any, court, (b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal, in nature, (c) Lok Adalats has not been given any statutory status so far, (d) No appeal lies in a civil court against the order of the Lok Adalat, 16. The Planning Commission of India has been constituted, [NDA 2013-II], (a) under constitutional provision with specific mention for it, (b) through an Act of Parliament, (c) through a cabinet decision in this regard, (d) through constitutional amendment, 17. The First Five Year Plan (1951-1956) was drafted by :, [NDA/NA 2015-II], (a) P C Mahalanobis, (b) K N Raj, (c) J C Kumarappa, (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., 2., , 3., , 4., 5., , 6., , 7., 8., , 9., , (b) The planning commission was not provided by the, constitution of India., (b) The word minority is not defined in the constitution of India,, yet it recognizes two types of minorities, based on religion, and language. The minorities commission is a statutory, body constituted in 1993 by an act of Parliament., (c) The central Information Commission was established by the, central government in 2005. It was constituted through an, official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right, to Information act (2005). Hence, It is not a constitutional, body., (a) Central Information Commission is a High powered, independent body and not a Constitutional body., (c), , (a) The first Commission was constituted in 1992 with, Shri S.H. Ramdhan as chairman. The second, Commission was constituted in October 1995 with, Shri H. Hanumanthappa as chairman., The 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1990 provided for the, establishment of a high level National Commission for SCs, and STs., The 89th constitution Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the, Combined National Commission for SCs and STs into two, separate bodies., (d) The commission can inquire suo moto or on a petition, presented to it by victim or any person on his behalf or on a, direction into complaint of violation of human rights., (d) Only 1 and 3 statements are correct. They are not, necessarily formed in each state as state Human Rights, Commission. Till now only 15 states have SHRCs and not, mandatory appoint a woman as a member., (a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra pradesh have already set up, Lokayauktas. So the incorrect answer is option (a) . The, Lokayukta appointed by the people is an anti-corruption
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 10., , (c), , 11., , (d), , 12., , (a), , 13., , (b), , 14., , (a), , 15., , (d), , ombudsman organization in the Indian states. The, Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) headed by, Morarji Desai submitted a special interim report on, “Problems of Redressal of Citizen’s Grievances” in 1966. In, this report, the ARC recommended the setting up of two, special authorities designated as ‘Lokpal’ and ‘Lokayukta’, for the redressal of citizens’ grievances., Lok Adalats settle disputes through conciliation and, compromise. Lok Adalats have been organized for, settlement of motor accident cases, insurance claims and, Land dispute cases. The System of Lok Adalats is an, improvement and is based on the principles of Mahatma, Gandhi., Lok Adalat has the jurisdiction to settle, by way of effecting, compromise between the parties, any matter which may be, pending before any court. Lok Adalat is a non-adversarial, system, whereby mock courts (called Lok Adalats) are held, by the State Authority, District Authority, Supreme Court, Legal Services Committee, High Court Legal Services, Committee, or Taluk Legal Services Committee., An award made by a Lok adalat is deemed to be a decree, of a Civil Court and no appeal lies against thereto before, any court. It was according to the Legal Services Authority, Act 1987, which gave statutory status to Lok Adalat., The award of the Lok Adalat is fictionally deemed to be, decrees of Court and therefore the court has all the powers, in relation thereto as it has in relation to a decree passed by, itself. This includes the powers to extend time in appropriate, cases. The award passed by the Lok Adalat is the decision, of the court itself, though, arrived at by the simpler method, of conciliation instead of the process of arguments in court., The Planning Commission was set up by a Resolution of, the Government of India in March 1950.It is not provided in, the constitution of India., Award has the same effect as of a Civil Court decree. The, Supreme Court has held that award of the Lok Adalat is as
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 16., , 17., , good as the decree of a Court. The award of the Lok Adalat, is fictionally deemed to be decrees of Court and therefore, the courts have all the powers in relation thereto as it has in, relation to a decree passed by itself. It was the legal, services authority act 1987, which gave statutory status to, Lok Adalat., (c) The Planning Commission was established in March 1950, by an executive resolution of the Government of India, on, the recommendation of the Advisory Planning Board, constituted in 1946, under the chairmanship of KC Neogi., Thus, the Planning Commission is neither constitutional nor, a statutory body. Planning commission has been replaced, by new institution namely NITI Aayog., (b) Kakkadan Nandanath Raj was a veteran Indian economist., He is popularly known as K. N. Raj. He played an important, role in India’s planned development, drafting sections of, India’s first Five Year Plan.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , Who among the following are mentioned in the Constitution of, India, as the part of the Electoral College to elect the members, of the Legislative Council of a State?, 1. Members of local bodies in the state, 2. Members of chambers of commerce in the state., 3. Graduates of three years and residing within the state, 4. All the teachers of three years in the state., Select the correct answer using the codes given below:, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 1 and 3 only, (b) 1, 3 and 4 only, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 2. Voting right by the youth at the age of 18 years was exercised, for the first time in the general election of [CDS 2017], (a) 1987, (b) 1988, (c) 1989, (d) 1990, 3. The system of proportion of Representation as an electoral, mechanism ensures, (a) Representation of minorities, (b) Rule of majority, (c) Stability in government, (d) Common political thinking, 4. Right to vote is a, (a) Social right, (b) Personal right, (c) Political right, (d) Legal right
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 5., (a), (b), (c), (d), 6., (a), (b), (c), (d), 7., (a), (b), (c), (d), 8., (a), (b), (c), (d), 9., 1., 2., , If in an election to a state Legislative Assembly, the candidate, who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that?, The polling was very poor., The election was for a multi-member constituency., The elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very, marginal., A very large number of candidates contested the election., Proportional representation is NOT necessary in a country, where?, There are no reserved constituencies., A two-party system has developed, The first past-post system prevails, There is a fusion of presidential and parlia-mentary form of, government., A college student desires to get elected to the municipal council, of his city. The validity of his nomination would depend on the, important condition, among others, that?, He obtains permission from the principal of his college., He is a member of a political party., His name figures in the voter’s list., He files a declaration owing allegiance to the constitution of, India., Which one of the following statements about Electoral, Government in India is not correct? (CDS 2015-II), The superintendence, direction and control of elections are, vested in the Election Commission of India., There is one general electoral roll for every territorial, constituency., The Parliament has the power to make laws relating to the, delimitation of constituencies., The Supreme Court of India has the authority to scrutinize the, validity of a law relating to delimitation of constituencies., The electronic voting machines are developed jointly with, (CDS 2015-II), Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, Bharat Electronics Limited
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3. Electronics Corporation of India Limited, 4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited, Select the correct answer using the code given below., (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 and 4, (d) 3 and 4, 10. Under which of the following conditions security deposits of a, candidate contesting for a Lok Sabha seat is returned to, him/her?, [NDA 2009-II], 1. The nomination made by the candidate if found to be invalid., 2. The candidate has withdrawn his/her nomination even though it, is found valid., 3. The candidate lost the polls but secured l/6th of the total number, of valid votes polled in that election., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) Only 3, (c) 2 and 3, (d) All of these, 11. The core of political democracy lies in the basic axiom of, electoral democracy which is based on [NDA 2010-II], (a) Right to education, (b) Freedom of speech, (c) Right to equality, (d) Universal adult franchise, 12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?, [NDA 2010-II], 1. A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok Sabha, from any constituency in India., 2. As per the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if a person is, convicted of any offence and sentenced to an imprisonment, of 2 years or more, he will be disqualified to contest, election., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 13., , Only 2, Both 1 and 2, Neither I nor 2, Which of the following condition/conditions must be fulfilled by, the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in, India?, [NDA 2012-I], 1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to, exercise their franchise., 2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries or, not are eligible to vote., 3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up form 6-A with electoral, registration office., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 1 and 3, (c) Only 2, (d) Only 3, 14. Which one among the following is not an attribute of, sustainability of Indian democratic model?, [NDA 2012-II], (a) Unity in diversity in socio-cultural patterns, (b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s, (c) Regular elections in the centre and states since 1950s, (d) A strong industrial base with a vibrant federal structure, 15. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral, reforms?, (a) Installation of electronic voting machines, (b) Appointment of election Commissioner, (c) Registration of Political parties, (d) Disqualifying the offenders, 16. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed, by, (a) anyone residing in India., (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be, contested.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a, constituency., (d) any citizen of India., 17. Consider the following statements:, 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning, candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be, declared elected., 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India,, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party, and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 18. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a, (a) Fundamental Right, (b) Natural Right, (c) Constitutional Right, (d) Legal Right
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., , 7., 8., 9., , 10., (i), , (b) Of the total number of members of the Legislative council, consists of—Member of local bodies in the state, Graduates, of three years and residing within the state., Nearly 1/12th of its memebers shall be elected by the persons, who have been for at least three years engaged in teaching, in such educational institutions within the State, not lower in, standard than that of a secondary school., (c) 61th amendment, 1989 on amending article 326 reduced, age for voting rights from 21 to 18., (a), (c) Right to vote is a legal right., (d) A candidate loses his deposit only when he is polled less, than 1/6th of votes. It can only be possible when a very, large number of candidates contested the elections., (b) In proportional representation, a candidate requires 50% +, 1 vote to get elected. In a bi-party system, one automatically, secures it. Proportional representation (PR) is a concept in, voting systems used to elect an assembly or council. PR, means that the number of seats won by a party or group of, candidates is proportionate to the number of votes received., (c) The validity of nomination of a person to get elected to the, municipal council would depend on the condition that his, name should be figured in the voter’s list., (d) Under Article 82 of the constitution, after every census, the, delimitation commission demarcates the boundary of, parliamentary constituency on the basis of Delimitation Act., (b) Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) and Electronics, Corporation of India Limited both jointly developed EVM, (Electronic voting Machine). It was implemented partly in, 1999 election and totally in 2004 election., (b) The deposit made by a candidate shall be returned if the, following conditions are satisfied:the candidate is not shown in the list of contesting candidates,, that is to say, either his nomination was rejected or after
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , his nomination was accepted, he withdrew his, candidature; or, (ii) he dies before the commencement of the poll; or, (iii) he is elected; or, (iv) he is not elected but gets more than 1/6th of the total number of, valid votes polled by all the candidates at the election., 11. (d) The core of political democracy is based on Universal adult, Franchise. pertaining to civil matters in India., 12. (b) A registered voter in India can contest an election to Lok, Sabha from any constituency in India except autonomous, Districts of Assam, Lakshadweep and Sikkim. According to, Section 8 of Representation of Peoples Act 1951,a person, convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for, not less than two years [other than any offence referred to, in sub-section (a) or sub-section (b), ] shall be, disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall, continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years, since his release., 13. (a) All statements are correct., 14. (b) Sustained economic growth specially after the 1990s, is not, an attribute of sustainability of Indian democratic model., 15. (a) Electoral reforms is change in electoral systems to improve, how public desires are expressed in election results,, Installation of electronic voting machines is not the parts of, such reforms., 16. (c) Let’s go by elimination., • To contest any election, person has to be CITIZEN of India., This eliminates A and B., • Any citizen of India, then could be a minor (below 18 years, also) then he can’t contests election. So, “D” also wrong., Hence we are left with answer “C”., 17. (d) New NCERT, Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution, Chapter 3: Election and Representation, Page 57: India has, first past the post system wherein a candidate who wins the, election may not (need to) get majority (50%+1) votes., Statement #1 is wrong.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy, Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th, Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker, comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post, of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition, party.Meaning it’s an ‘informal consensus’ among political, parties, and not Constitutional provision. Hence #2 also, wrong., 18. (c) New NCERT Class 9: Democratic Politics, Page 109: Right, to vote in elections is an important constitutional right., New NCERT,Std. 11, Introduction to Indian Constitution, Page 66, one of the important decisions of the framers of India, Constitution was to guarantee every adult citizen in India,, the right to vote. [Article 326], Combining the interpretation of both textbooks, “C” is the answer.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., (a), (b), (c), (d), 2., (a), (b), (c), (d), 3., (a), (b), (c), (d), 4., (a), (b), (c), (d), 5., (a), (b), (c), (d), 6., (a), , The political parties got the Constitution recognition for the first, time in the year, 1975, 1977, 1985, 1995, The Kamraj Plan proposed, priority to agriculture over industry, inducting senior leaders to party work, election to all party officers, an overhaul of the congress working committee, In India partyless democracy was first advocated by, Jai Prakash Narayan, M.N. Ray, Vinoba Bhave, Mahatma Gandhi, Which party provided two Prime Ministers in two years time?, B.J.P., Janata Party, Janata Dal, Samajwadi Janata Party, Who is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)?, Jyotiba Phule, Kanshi Ram, B.R. Ambedkar, Sahu Maharaj, Which party has advocated the coming together of all Left, parties?, CPI
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) CPI (M), (c) NCP, (d) INC, 7. Consider the following statements :, Assertion (a) : The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats, for women in parliament and state legislature, does not require constitutional Amendment., Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate, thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to, women candidates without any Constitutional, Amendment, Which one of the following is correct?, (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A., (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A., (c) A is true but R is false., (d) A is false but R is true., 8. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor, between a pressure group and a political party?, [2012-I], (a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political parties, involve larger number of people, (b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political, parties do, (c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while political, parties do, (d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do, not bother about political issues, 9. Which one among the following statements about the, functioning of political parties in a democracy is not, correct?, [2012-II], (a) Political parties give political education to the people, (b) Political parties serve as a link between the government and the, people, (c) Political parties fight elections and try to get the maximum, number of their candidates elected, (d) None of the above
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 10. Consider the following statements, [2013-I], 1. The Anti-Defection Law bans an elected member from voting, against the explicit mandate of his/her party., 2. The Anti-Defection provisions do not apply if one-third of the, members of a party disobey the mandate of the party and, constitute themselves as a separate party., Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 11. The Election Commission recognizes a political party as a, national party if, [NDA/NA 2016-I], 1. it secures at least six percent of the total valid votes polled in four, or more States in a general election to the Lok Sabha or to, the State Legislative Assemblies., 2. it wins at least four seats in a general election to the Lok Sabha, from any State or States., Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 12., A political party is recognized as a regional party, if, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) It gets 4% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the, Assembly election, (b) It gets 6% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the, Assembly election, (c) It gets 8% votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or the, Assembly election, (d) None of the above, 13., When did the Communist Party of India (Marxist) emerge as a, separate political party?, [UGC-II 2016], (a) 1960, (b) 1964
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., 2., , 3., , 4., , 5., 6., 7., , 8., , 9., , (c) Political parties got the constitutional recognition for the first, time in 1985., (b) The Kamraj Plan proposed inducting senior leaders to party, work. He came up with a plan which was called the, “Kamaraj Plan”. On 2 October 1963, he resigned from the, post of Tamil Nadu Chief Minister. He proposed that all, senior Congress leaders should resign from their posts and, devote all their energy to the re-vitalization of the party., (a) In India partyless democracy was first advocated by Jai, Prakash Narayan. Jayaprakash Narayan (11 October 1902, – 8 October 1979), widely known as JP Narayan,, Jayaprakash, or Lok Nayak (Hindi for The People’s Hero)., (c) Janata Dal provided two prime Ministers in two years., H.D. Deve Gowda - 1996 to 1997 (11th Prime Minister), I. K. Gujral - 1997 to 1998 (12th Prime minister), (b) BSP was founded in 1983 by Kanshi Ram. Due to his, deteriorating health in the 1990s, former school teacher, Mayawati became the party’s leader., (a) Communist party if India (CPI) has advocated to coming, together all left parties., (d) The 108th amendment bill or the women’s reservation bill,, introduced in 2008, is a lapsed bill. The bill proposed to, amend the Indian Constitution to reserve 33 percent of, seats for women in the lower house of the Indian, Parliament, in the Lok Sabha and in the state legislative, assemblies., (b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, political, parties do. Political parties exist to gain power over, governmental policy by winning elections for political office., Interest groups do not necessarily have their members run, for office and they vote in a nonpartisan way, supporting, candidates who promote their point of view., (a) “Political parties give political education to the people” is, not the function of political parties in a democracy.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 10., , 11., 12., , 13., , 14., , (a) The grounds for disqualification under the Anti-Defection, Law are as follows:, If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any, direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised, to do so, without obtaining prior permission. As a precondition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting, should not be condoned by his party or the authorised, person within 15 days of such incident. As per the 1985 Act,, a ‘defection’ by one-third of the elected members of a, political party was considered a ‘merger’. Finally, the 91st, Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, changed this. So now, at least two-thirds of the members of a party have to be in, favour of a “merger” for it to have validity in the eyes of the, law., (c), (b) A political party is entitled to be recognised as a state party, only if it secures at least 6% of the valid votes polled in the, State at a general election either to the Lok Sabha or to the, Legislative Assembly of the State concerned and in addition, wins at least 2 seats in the State Legislative Assembly of, concerned state., (b) The communist party of India (Marxist) was born in the, struggle against revisionism and sectarianism in the, communist movement at the international and national level,, in order to defend the scientific and revolutionary tenets of, Marxism – Leninism and its appropriate application in the, concrete Indian conditions. It was emerged as a Separate, Political party in 1964., (c) The All India Trinamool Congress is an Indian political party, based in West Bengal. It was founded on 1st January 1998, and has been recognised as National Party in 2016.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., (a), (b), (c), (d), 2., (a), (b), (c), (d), 3., (a), (b), (c), (d), 4., (a), (b), (c), (d), 5., (a), (b), (c), (d), 6., , Which one of the following is not an essential element of a, federal form of government?, Written Constitution, Independent judiciary, Division of power, Separation of powers, Parliamentary Supremacy is the definite feature of the political, system in, UK, India, Canada, Australia, Which one of the following is the basis of federal government?, Supremacy of the parliament, Supremacy of Judiciary, Division of powers between federal and state government, single citizenship, Government is classified as parliamentary and presidential on, the basis of which of the following?, Relations between legislature and executive, Relations between politician and civil servants, Written or unwritten Constitutions, Rigid or Flexible Constitutions, The presidential system operates on the principle of, Division of powers, Separation of powers, Fusion of powers, Balance of powers, The cabinet in the Parliamentary system is accountable to
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a) The President, [NDA-2017], (b) The Prime Minister, (c) The Council of Ministers, (d) The Legislature, 7. Which one among the following statements is correct ?, The press in democracy must, (a) be free and impartial, (b) be committed to the policies of the government, (c) highlight the achievement of the government without criticizing its, policies, (d) criticize the policies of the government, 8. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British, Parliamentary system in that India has?, (a) Both a real and a nominal executive, (b) A system of collective responsibility, (c) Bicameral legislature, (d) The system of judicial review, 9. Consider the following events :, 1. Fourth general elections in India, 2. Formation of Haryana state, 3. Mysore named as Karnataka state, 4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states, Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the, above?, (a) 2-1-4-3, (b) 4-3-2-1, (c) 2-3-4-1, (d) 4-1-2-3, 10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below :, List-I, (Types of Government), A. Parliamentary, B. Government, C. Presidential, , List -II, (Characteristics), 1. Cenralisation of powers, 2. Division of powers, 3. Separation of powers
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , D., , Government, Federal System, Unitary System, Codes :, , 4. Collective responsibility, , A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 2, , 1, , 4, , 3, , (b), , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , (c), , 2, , 3, , 4, , 1, , (d), , 4, , 1, , 2, , 3, , 11., , Consider the following statements and select the correct answer, from the codes given below :, Assertion (a) : Parliamentary system of government is based, on the principle of collective responsibility., Reason (R) : A parliamentary defeat is not necessarily a, sufficient cause for resignation of the Ministry., Codes :, (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct, explanation of A, (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct, explanation of A, (c) A is true but R is false, (d) A is false but R is true, 12. Consider the following features :, 1. Presence of a nominal or titular head of state, 2. Collective responsibility of cabinet, 3. Accountability of executive to the legislature, 4. Separation of powers, Which of these are the features of a parliamentary form of, Government ?, (a) 2, 3 and 4, (b) 1, 2 and 4, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2 and 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the, codes given below :, List-I, (Forms of Government), A. Cabinet, B. Government, C. Presidential, D. Government, Federal Government, Unitary Government, Codes :, A, , B, , C, , D, , (a), , 3, , 4, , 2, , 5, , (b), , 2, , 1, , 4, , 3, , (c), , 3, , 5, , 1, , 2, , (d), , 4, , 1, , 2, , 5, , 14., (a), (b), (c), (d), 15., (a), (b), (c), (d), 16., (a), (b), (c), , List -II, (Essential Features), 1. Separation of powers, 2. Collective responsibility, 3. Concentration of powers, 4. Division of powers, 5. Administrative law, , The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in, The United Kingdom, Australia, The United States, Canada, The ‘Due Process of Law’ is the characteristics of the judicial, system of, India, France, U.K., U.S.A, Recently London High Court granted right to few elderly people, to go ahead with their case against government in relation to, Mau Mau Rebellion. In which country this rebellion took place?, Kenya, Libya, Ethiopia
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) Republic of Congo, 17. The ‘Panchsheel Agreement’ for peaceful coexistence was, signed between, (CDS 2015-II), (a) India and Bhutan, (b) India and Nepal, (c) India and China, (d) India and Pakistan, 18. Which one of the following is not a component of the Realist, Theory?, (CDS 2015-II), (a) The State is the preeminent actor, (b) State sovereignty is important for the affirmation of juridical, authority over territory, (c) The primary objective of all States is survival, (d) Survival can be assured in cooperation with international, organizations, 19. Which one of the following does not form part of Immanuel, Kant’s theory of ‘perpetual peace’? (CDS 2015-II), (a) Republican Constitutionalism, (b) Federal contract among States to abolish war, (c) World Government, (d) Transformation of individual consciousness, 20. Formal or procedural democracy does not by any means, guarantee, [NDA 2010-II], (a) political and civil rights, (b) constitutionalism, (c) the rule of law, (d) absence of caste discrimination, 21. Why is political power sharing through different levels of, government desirable in a democracy? [NDA 2010-II], 1. It helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between various social, groups., 2. It decreases the possibility of arbitrary decision-making., 3. It prompts people’s participation at different levels of government., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 3, (b) 1, 2 and 3
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c) 1 and 3, (d) Only 2, 22. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the, Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British Monarch., This is because, [NDA 2011-I], (a) this mernbership does not affect the sovereign nature of the, Indian Republic, (b) this membership only shows that the British ruled over India, (c) members of the association are sovereign and independent, (d) it is a symbol of the unity among the members of the association, 23. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing, in a democratic political system. [NDA 2012-I], Which one of the following is not one of them?, (a) It reduces conflict among different communities, (b) Majority community does not impose its will on others, (c) Since, all are affected by the policies of the government, they, should be consulted in the governance of the country, (d) It speeds up the decision-making process and improves the, chances of unity of the country, 24. What is/are the major difference/differences between a written, and an unwritten Constitution?, [NDA 2012-II], 1. A written Constitution is the formal source of all Constitutional, Laws in the country and the unwritten Constitution is not the, formal source., 2. A written Constitution is entirely codified whereas an unwritten, Constitution is not., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) Only 1, (b) Only 2, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2, 25. Political theory, [NDA 2014-I], 1. deals with the ideas and principles that shape Constitutions., 2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 3., , probes the significance of principles of rule of law, separation of, power and judicial review., Select the correct answer using the codes given below, (a) 1 and 2, (b) Only 1, (c) 2 and 3, (d) All of these, 26. Consider the following statements about democracy, [NDA 2014-I], 1. It consists with the formation of government elected by the, people., 2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair chance of, losing., 3. Each vote has one value., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 and 2, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) Only 1, (d) 2 and 3, 27. Which of the following about the principles of Panchsheel are, correct ?, [NDA 2014-II], 1. These are a set of five principles governing relations between, States, 2. The assumption of Panchsheel was that newly independent, States after decolonization would be able to develop a new, and more principled approach to international relations, 3. The first formal codification in treaty form was done in an, agreement between China and India, Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1 and 2 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1, 2 and 3, (d) 1 and 3 only, 28. Parliamentry Democracy is one where [NDA 2015-I], 1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 2., , the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected, representatives., 3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking, and acting on behalf of their constituents., Select the correct answer using the code given below :, (a) 1, 2 and 3, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 1 and 3 only, (d) 2 only, 29. Which of the following are the features of the ideology of, utilitarianism?, [NDA/NA 2016-II], 1. Utilitarians believed that all value derives from land, 2. The most celebrated spokesmen of utilitarianism were jeremy, Bentham and John Stuart Mill, 3. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could be ruled, through indigenous laws and customs, 4. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea of the ‘greatest good for, the greatest number of people’, Select the correct answer using the code given below:, (a) 1 and 4 only, (b) 2 and 4 only, (c) 1, 2 and 4, (d) 2 and 3, 30. Which of the following is/are true relating to Nelson, Mandela?, [NDA/NA 2014-I], 1. He was the first President of South Africa., 2. Mandela spent 18 years in prison on Robben Island., 3. Mandela became the President in 1990 after his release from the, prison., Select the correct answer using the code given below, (a) 1 and 3 only, (b) 2 and 3 only, (c) 2 only, (d) 1, 2 and 3, 31., We have a system of Judicial Review in [UP-PCS 2008], (a) Indian only
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b), (c), (d), 32., , U. K. only, U. S. A. only, Both in India and U. S. A., Which one of the following is the correct sequence of persons, who occupied the office of the President of India right from, beginning?, [UP-PCS 2009], (a) C. Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, Zakir Hussian, V. V. giri, (b) Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishna, V. V. giri, Zakir Hussian, (c) C. Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishna,, Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad, (d) Rajendra Prasad, S. Radhakrishna, Zakir Hussian, V. V. Giri, 33., Arrange the following Indian States in a chronological order,, according to their formation, and select the correct answer by, using the codes given at the end., [UP-PCS 2009], 1., Chhattisgarh, 2., Arunachal Pradesh, 3., Jharkhand, 4., Sikkim, Codes :, (a) 4, 1, 2, 3, (b) 4, 2, 1, 3, (c) 3, 2, 1, 4, (d) 1, 4, 2, 3, 34., The following States were created after 1960. Arrange them in, ascending chronological order of their formation and choose, your answer from the given code., [UP-PCS 2010], 1., Haryana, 2., Sikkim, 3., Nagaland, 4., Meghalaya, Codes :, (a) 1, 2, 3, 4, (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (c), (d), 35., (a), (b), (c), (d), 36., (a), (b), (c), (d), 37., (a), (b), (c), (d), 38., (a), (b), (c), (d), 39., (a), (b), (c), (d), , 3, 1, 4, 2, 2, 4, 1, 3, Which one of the following writs is issued during the pendency, of proceedings in a court? [UP-PCS 2010], Mandamus, Certiorari, Prohibition, Quo warranto, In which of the Indian Provinces the first Communist, Government was established?, [UP-PCS 2010], Tamilnadu, andhra Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Which one of the following State has granted Sanskrit, language the status of the second official language of the, state?, [UP-PCS 2011], Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with, Trade Union Movement?, [UP-PCS 2012], V. V. Giri, N. Sanjiva Reddy, K. R. Narayanan, Zakir Hussain, Which one the following statements is not correct?, [UP-PCS 2013], The Constitutional Amendment Bill has to be passed by both, houses of Parliament separately with special majority, Constitutional cases in Supreme Court is heard by minimum five, judges, Freedom of press is included in the fundamental right - Freedom, of speech and expression., Zakir Hussain was the first Vice President of India
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 40., (a), (b), (c), (d), 41., , The largest Union Territory of India is [UP-PCS 2014], Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Delhi, Chandigarh, ‘Pivot to Asia’ is the strategy of the foreign policy of, [UP-PCS 2015], (a) India, (b) Japan, (c) China, (d) U. S. A, 42. In a single transferable vote system, each voter is required to :, (a) Indicate one preference more than the seats to be filled up, (b) Indicate one preference less than the total seats to be filled up, (c) Indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to be, elected, (d) Indicate only a single preference, 43. Which of the following statement/s about the Right to negative, vote is / are correct? Select the correct answer from the codes, given below :, [UGC 2016], I. The Election Commission of India wanted that ‘None of the, above’ button on Electronic voting machine should be, offered to voters., II. The public interest litigation, in the Supreme Court for NOTA, option was filed by the Association for Democratic Reforms., III. Elections in a constituency will be held again if NOTA gets the, highest votes., IV. The candidate with highest number of votes will be declared, elected even if she/ he receives less than the NOTA votes., Codes :, (a) Only I and II are correct, (b) Only II and III are correct, (c) Only III and IV are correct, (d) Only I and IV are correct, 44., ‘Balance of Power’ is an important principle of :, [UGC 2016]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 45., , Liberal thought in international politics, Marxist thought in international politics, Traditional thought in international politics, Realist thought in international politics, According to Iris L Calude Jr. which of the following is not a, device for the management of power? [UGC 2016], (a) Arms control, (b) Collective security, (c) Balance of power, (d) World Government, 46., The modern state system with its territorial sovereignty came, into existence first in Europe in the wake of the :, [UGC 2016], (a) Treaty of Versailles, (b) Congress of Vienna, (c) Treaty of Westphalia, (d) Congress of Berlin, 47. Which one among the following statements is correct?, The press in democracy must –, (a) be free and impartial, (b) be committed to the policies of the government, (c) highlight the achievement of the government without criticizing its, policies, (d) Criticize the policies of the government, 48., The head of state of the United Kingdom is –, [BPSC 2017], (a) Queen Elizabeth I, (b) Queen Elizabeth II, (c) Queen Elizabeth III, (d) Queen Elizabeth IV, (e) None of the above / More than one of the above, 49. Vote on Account is meant for –, [BPSC 2017], (a) Vote on the report of CAG, (b) To meet unforeseen expenditure, (c) Appropriating funds pending due to passing of budget, (d) Budget
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (e) None of the above/ More than one of the above, 50. There are different arguments given in favour of power sharing, in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is, not one of them?, (a) It reduces conflict among different communities, (b) Major community does not impose its will on others, (c) Since all are affected by the policies of the government, they, should be consulted in the governance of the county, (d) It speeds up the decision making process and improves the, chances of unity of the country, 51., Which of the following are the tools of good governance?, 1., Social Audit, 2., Separation of Powers, 3., Citizen’s Charter, 4., Right to Information, Select the correct answer from the codes given below :, (a) 1, 3 and 4, (b) 2, 3 and 4, (c) 1 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 52., The Presidential system operates most successfully in the, USA because of –, [UGC-II 2016], (a) A strong two party system, (b) A well demarcated constitution, (c) Judicial review, (d) Minor contradictions in society, 53., The House of Lords in Great Britain is mainly retained because, –, [UGC-II 2016], (a) It is as important as the House of Commons, (b) It plays an important role of checks and balances, (c) It acts as a judicial court, (d) It is maintained as an institution, 54., The growth of judicial power over the last one hundred years in, liberal democracies have taken place because –, [UGC-II 2016], (a) The constitutions have given the judiciary more powers
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (b) Acceptance of the theory of separation of powers, (c) The U. N. Directives, (d) Protect Human Rights, 55., E - governance is –, [UGC-II 2016], 1., cost-efficient, 2., transparent, 3., time-saving, 4., responsive, Select the correct answer from the codes given below –, Codes:, (a) 1 and 3, (b) 1, 2 and 3, (c) 1, 3 and 4, (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4, 56., Which one of the following is not the technique of the balance, of power?, [UGC-II 2016], (a) Amassing of weapons, (b) Seizing of territory, (c) Methods of persuasion, (d) Creating of buffer states, 57., Which one of the following was not the basis invoked by the, US for attacking Iraq in March 2003? [UGC-II 2016], (a) Iraq possessed weapons of mass destruction, (b) Saddam Hussain had links with A1 Quaeda, (c) Regime Change in Iraq, (d) Iraq had not withdrawn from Kuwait complety, 58., Which of the following Republic/Republics was/were supported, by Russia in Georgia war of 2008 ?, [UGC-II 2016], (a) South Ossettia, (b) South Ossettia and Abkhazia both, (c) Abkhazia, (d) Nogorno Karabakh, 59. As per United Nations Convention on the Law of sea (UNCLOS), states are entitled for Jurisdiction over sea water as under, –, [UGC-II 2016]
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (a), (b), (c), (d), 60., (a), (b), (c), (d), 61., , three miles from sea shore as territorial waters, twelve miles from the shore for shipping, two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), all the three jurisdictions, Under Bush Doctrine, the USA held states responsible for, activities inside their territo and thus acquired the right to, –, [UGC-II 2016], act unilaterally against rogue and failed states, act against states which were opposed to it ideologically, move against states which refused to join in drive for NATO, expansion, intervene instituations of ethnic cleansing, Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from, the codes given below –, , List- I, , List - II, , (a), , Uniting for Peace Resolution, , 1., , 1990, , (b), , The Suez Crisis, , 2., , 2002, , (c), , UN Security Council Resolution on, Iraq weapons, , 3., , 1956, , 4., , 1950, , (d), , UN Mission in Kosovo, Codes :, (a), , (b), , (c), , (d), , (a), , 3, , 2, , 1, , 4, , (b), , 2, , 1, , 3, , 4, , (c), , 4, , 3, , 2, , 1, , (d), , 1, , 2, , 4, , 3, , 62., (a), (b), (c), , The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban regime in, Afghanistan after –, [UGC-II 2016], 9/11 attacks in the US, attacks on US embassies in Kenya and Tanzania, attack on US military mission headquarter in Riyadh
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , (d) failures of talks on gas pipeline through Afghanistan, 63., Referendum has an integral relationship with–, (a) Indirect Democracy, (b) Limited Monarchy, (c) Direct Democracy, (d) People’s Courts, 64., Public Interest Litigation has its origin in –, (a) England, (b) France, (c) USSR, (d) USA, 65. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into, activity, (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women., (b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership., (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision., (d) a band of dedicated party workers., 66. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence, of, (a) Privileges, (b) Restraints, (c) Competition, (d) Ideology, 67. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval, Symposium (IONS):, 1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the, chairmanship of the Indian Navy., 2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian, Ocean Region., Which of the above statements is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 68. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by, India?, (a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase., (b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be, strengthened., (c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and, Central Asia., (d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas, pipeline between Iraq and India., 69. Consider the following statements:, 1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the, aegis of the United Nations., 2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of, International Atomic Energy Agency., Which of the statements given above is/are correct?, (a) 1 only, (b) 2 only, (c) Both 1 and 2, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 1., , (d) In a federal form of government separation of powers is not, an essential element. A federal state is a political entity, characterized by a union of partially self-governing states or, regions under a central (federal) government in a single, political system. So the federation is a form of government, in which a division of powers between central govt. and, regional govt. eg. India., 2., (a) ‘Parliamentary Supremacy’ is the definite feature of the, political system in U.K., 3., (c) Federal Government-Division of powers between federal, and state government., 4., (a) Government is classified as parliamentary and presidential, on the basis of relations between legislature and executive., 5., (b) The presidential system operates on the principle of, separation of powers. India follows a parliamentary system, of government, which offers a clear separation of powers., 6., (d) Cabinet in Parliamentary system is accountable to, legislature Presidential system is accountable to executive., 7. (a) A press in democracy must be free and impartial., 8., (d) The law that the British Parliament enacts, cannot be, brought to the Judiciary for its review unlike the Indian, Parliament, wherein the legislation that it passes,, undergoes a judicial review. Any such legislation, as passed, in the Indian Parliament can also be struck down in case the, courts declare it to be violating the basic structure of the, Indian Constitution., 9., (a) Haryana state - Act 1966, Fourth Lok Sabha - 16th March 1967, Manipur Tripura and Meghalaya- Act, 1971, Karnataka - Act, 1973, 10. (b), , 11. (c) The ministers are collectively responsible to the, parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in, particular (Article 75). The principle of collective
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove, the ministry (Council of Ministers headed by the prime, minister) from office by passing a vote of no, confidence., 12., 1., 2., 3., 4., 5., 6., 7., 8., 9., 13., , (d) The features of parliamentary government in India are:, Nominal and Real Executive, Majority Party Rule., Collective Responsibility, Political homogeneity, Double Membership, Leadership of the Prime Ministers, Dissolution of the Lower House, Secrecy, Fusion of Powers, (b), , 14. (c) The concept of public Interest litigation (PIL), originated in the USA., 15., , 16., , (d) The Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the United States, Constitution each contains a Due Process Clause. Due, process deals with the administration of justice and thus the, Due Process Clause acts as a safeguard from arbitrary, denial of life, liberty, or property by the Government outside, the sanction of law., (a) The Mau Mau Rebellion took place in Kenya. The Mau Mau, Uprising (also known as the Mau Mau Revolt, Mau Mau, Rebellion and Kenya Emergency) was a military conflict that, took place in Kenya between 1952 and 1960. It involved, Kikuyu-dominated anti-colonial groups summarily called, Mau Mau and elements of the British Army, the local Kenya, Regiment mostly consisting of the British, auxiliaries and, anti-Mau Mau Kikuyu. The capture of rebel leader Dedan, Kimathi on 21 October 1956 signalled the ultimate defeat of, Mau Mau, and essentially ended the British military, campaign
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 17., , (c) Panchsheel Agreement was signed between India and, China (29 April 1954) on the following principles I. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and, sovereignty., II. Mutual non-aggression, III. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs., IV. Equality and mutual benefit and, V. Peaceful coexistance., 18. (d) Realists believe in self assistance. They think that no other, country may be trusted for the survival., 19. (c) Immanuel Kant (22 April, 1724 - 12 Feb 1804), a great, German philosopher proposed the theory of perpetual, peace containing following points:(i) No standing army existance., (ii) No any independent state will be interfered with any other, dominion state., (iii) No state will be interfered by another state constitutionally., (iv) Existance of universal peace policy., 20. (c) Procedural democracy is a democracy in which the people, or citizens of the state have less influence than in traditional, liberal democracies. This type of democracy is, characterized by voters choosing to elect representatives in, free elections. Procedural democracy is quite different from, substantive democracy, which is manifested by equal, participation of all groups in society in the political, process.Namibia, Angola, and Mozambique are examples, of examples of procedural democracies., 21. (b) Power sharing helps in reducing the conflict between, various social groups. Hence, power sharing is necessary, for maintaining social harmony and peace.Power sharing, helps in avoiding the tyranny of majority. The tyranny of, majority not only destroys the minority social groups but, also the majority social group. It decreases the possibility of, arbitrary decision making.People’s voice forms the basis of, a democratic government (people’s participation at different, levels of government).
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 22., , 23., 24., , 25., 26., , 27., 28., , 29., , (b) The Commonwealth of Nations is an intergovernmental, organisation of 53 member states that were mostly, territories of the former British Empire. The membership, only shows that the British ruled over India., (b), (c) A written constitution is one which is found in one or more, than one legal documents duly enacted in the form of laws. It is, precise, definite and systematic and codified. An unwritten, constitution is one in which most of the principles of the, government have never been enacted in the form of laws. It, consists of customs, conventions, traditions and some written, laws bearing different dates. It is not codified. It is unsystematic,, indefinite and unprecise.So, Written constitution is the formal, source of all constitutional laws and Unwritten Constitution is not, the formal source., (d) Political Theory deals with the study of political institutions, as well as with theories of state, law, liberty, equality and, representation., (b) Democracy is a form of government that allows people to, choose their rulers. In a democracy only leaders elected by, the people can rule the country. A democracy must be, based on a free and fair election where those currently in, power have a fair chance of losing. Each adult citizen must, have one vote and each vote must have one value., (c), (b) Popular participation is unmediated; the people are the, government, there is no separate elite or ruling-class between, the government and their people. This is an indirect and limited, form of democracy where the people choose who shall make, decisions on their behalf. In the responsible democracy, the, government is responsible first to the parliament’s lower house,, which is more numerous, directly elected and thus more, representative than the upper house. The people vote for their, representative who speaks on behalf of their constituents., (b)
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 30., 31., 32., 33., , (c) Nelson Mandela was the first black president of South, Africa (1994-99). Mandela spent 18 years(From 1964 to, 1982) in prison on Robben island., (d) We have the system of Judicial Review in both states of, India and U. S. A., (d), (b) The above states were formed in the following order –, , 1., , Sikkim, , –, , 1975, , 2., , Arunachal, Pradesh, , –, , 1986, , 3., , Chattisgarh, , –, , Nov. 1-2000, , 4., 34., , Jharkhand, –, Nov. 15, 2000, (a) The ascending chronological order will be as following :, , A., , Nagaland, , –, , 1961, , B., , Haryana, , –, , 1966, , C., , Meghalaya, , –, , 1972, , D., 35., 36., 37., 38., , 39., , Sikkim, –, 1975, (c), (c) In India it was the provinces of Kerala where first, Communist government was formed in 1957 led by E., Nambudbad., (d) Uttarakhand has given to Sanskrit as the status of second, official language of the state in January 2010., (a) V.V. Giri served as President of India during 1969 to 1974., He was actively associated with trade union movement. He, was President of All-India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), twice. He was also associated with All India Railway, Workers’ Federation., (d) Dr. Zakir Hussain served as second Vice President of India., Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was the first Vice President of, India.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 40., 41., 42., 43., , 44., , 45., 46., 47., 48., 49., , 50., 51., , (c) The top three largest union territories are Andaman &, Nicobar Islands, Delhi and Puducherry., (a) Pivot to Asia was one of the United States of America’s, central foreign policy initiatives during the tenure of, President Barack Obama., (c) In a single transferable vote system, each voter is required, to indicate as many preferences as there are candidates to, be elected., (d) The public Interest Litigation (PIL) for granting NOTA was, filed in supreme Court by the People’s Union for Civil, Liberties. The supreme Court Judgement was delivered on, 27 September, 2013. The NOTA option is not at present, effectively implemented in Indian elections as it does affect, the outcome of elections., (d) ‘Balance of Power’ is and important principle of Realist, thought in international politics which suggests that national, security is enhanced when military capability is distributed, so that no one state is strong enough to dominate all others., (a) According to Iris L Calude Jr. arms control is not a device, for the management of power. He was a leading scholar in, international relations and international organizations., (c) The peace treaties of West phalia were signed in 1648,, which led to the emergence of modern state system in, international relations., (a) The press in democracy must be free and impartial., (b) Queen Elizabeth II is the head of state of the United, Kingdom., (c) The Vote on Account is the Special Provision given to the, government to obtain the vote of Parliament to withdraw, Money when the budget for the new financial year is not, released or the elections are underway., (d) Power sharing in a Democ ratic political System does not, speeds up the decision making process and improves the, chances of unity of the country., (d) The tools of good governance are social Audit, Separation, of Power, Citizen’s Charter, Right to Information.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Good Governance is about the processes for making and, implementing decisions, it describes how Public institution, Conduct Public affairs and manage public resources., 52. (d) The presidential system is a system of government where, an executive branch is led by a President who serves as, both head of state and head of government. It operates, most successfully in the USA because of Minor, Contradictions in society., 53. (d) It is observed That British people are very conservative and, have great regard for their historical institutions. Therefore,, they continue to support historical institutions like Crown, and House of Lords., 54. (d) The growth of Judicial Power over the last one hundred, years in liberal democracies has taken place to protect, Human rights., 55. (d) Electronic – governance is the application of information, and communication technology for delivering government, services, exchange of information, communication, transactions etc. It is cost efficient, transparent, time –, saving and responsive., 56. (c) Methods of persuasion is not the technique of the balance, of power., 57. (d) The question of withdrawal of Iraq from kuwait was an, issue in 1991 Iraq war. This was not an issue during 2003, Iraq war., 58. (b) South Ossettia and Abkhazia republics were supported by, Russia in Georgia war of 2008., 59. (d) As per United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, (UNCLOS) States are entitled for Jurisdiction over Sea, water under –, (i) three miles from sea shore as territorial waters, (ii) twelve miles from the shore for shipping, (iii) two hundred miles as Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), 60. (a) The Bush Doctrine was laid down by the US President, George W, Bush in 2001. It refers to foreign policy principles, of the President of the united states, George W. Bush.
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , Charles Krathammer first used the phrase in June 2001., Generally, the Bush Doctrine was used to indicate a, willingness to unilaterally Pursue U. S. military interests., Some of these policies were incorporated in a National, Security Council proposals the National Security strategy of, the United states, published on September 20, 2002., 61., , (c), , List - I, , List - II, , (a), , Uniting for Peace, Resolution, , (4), , 1950, , (b), , The Suez Crisis, , (3), , 1956, , (c), , UN Security Council, Resolution on Iraq, Weapons, , (2), , 2002, , (d), , UN Mission in Kosovo (1), , 1990, , 62., , (b) The US stopped cultivating ties with Taliban Regime in, Afghanistan after attack on US embassies in Kenya and, Tanzania in1998., 63. (c) Referendum is a general vote by the electorate on a single, political question which has been referred to them for a, direct decision. It has an integral relationship with Direct, Democracy., 64. (d) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) means litigation for the, protection of the Public Interest. It is litigation introduced in, a court of law, not by the aggrieved party but by the court, itself or by any other private party. It has its origin in USA., 65. (a) NEW NCERT Class 8 Civics, Chapter 3, page 32, The take-off point for a democracy is the idea of consent, i.e. the, desire, approval and participation of people. It is the, decision of people that creates a democratic government, and decides about its functioning., So, since democracy requires voters’ decision making- hence, intelligence and character are called in. hence answer “A”
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JOIN telegram https://t.me/reetmaterials2, , 66. (a) NEW NCERT Class 11, Political Science, page 45., •, First step towards bringing about equality is of course ending, the formal system of inequality and privileges. The caste, system in India prevented people from the ‘lower’ castes, from doing anything except manual labour. In many, countries only people from some families could occupy high, positions. Attainment of equality requires that all such, restrictions or privileges should be brought to an end., 67. (b) •, The 2015 event was hosted by S.Africa and co-chair, Tanzania. So first statement is wrong., •, In 2008, IONS was setup taking all the littoral countries of, the Indian Ocean (IO) onboard to promote friendly, relationship and…bear upon issues of regional, maritime security and cooperation in the maritime, domain. Second statement is right., 68. (c) In May 2016, India and Iran signed the “historic” Chabahar, port agreement, which has the potential of becoming India’s, gateway to Afghanistan, Central Asia and Europe. So, C is, the most fitting answer., 69. (d) President Obama had initiated NSS in 2010. so, first, statement is wrong., •, The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM), an, independent group of arms-control and non-proliferation, experts from 17 countries, has been keeping track of HEU, and plutonium around the world. So second statement also, wrong.
